a nurse is caring for a client who has deep vein thrombosis dvt which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care
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Nursing Elites

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ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank

1. A client has deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is to elevate the affected extremity above the level of the heart. This position promotes venous return, reduces swelling, and helps prevent complications such as pulmonary embolism. Applying cold compresses (choice A) can vasoconstrict blood vessels, potentially worsening the condition. Massaging the affected extremity (choice B) can dislodge the clot and lead to serious complications. Keeping the affected extremity dependent when sitting (choice D) can hinder venous return and exacerbate the DVT.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis and a new prescription for lactulose. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following therapeutic effects of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreased serum ammonia. Lactulose is prescribed to decrease serum ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis and hepatic encephalopathy. By reducing serum ammonia, lactulose helps improve the mental status of these clients. Therefore, monitoring for decreased serum ammonia is crucial to assess the effectiveness of lactulose therapy. Choice A (Improved mental status) is indirectly related as it is the desired outcome of decreasing ammonia levels. Choices B (Increased urine output) and D (Decreased bilirubin levels) are not directly associated with the therapeutic effects of lactulose in cirrhosis and hepatic encephalopathy.

3. A client who has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis should be placed in which type of room to prevent the spread of airborne pathogens?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients diagnosed with tuberculosis should be placed in a negative pressure room to prevent the spread of airborne pathogens. Option A is incorrect because administering isoniazid is a treatment for tuberculosis, not a preventive measure related to infection control. Option B is incorrect as droplet isolation is used for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets, not airborne pathogens like tuberculosis. Option C is incorrect as wearing a surgical mask is not sufficient to prevent the spread of tuberculosis in healthcare settings; placing the client in a negative pressure room is the most effective measure.

4. What is the best position for a patient experiencing shortness of breath?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best position for a patient experiencing shortness of breath is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and improves oxygenation by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Supine position (lying flat on the back) may worsen breathing difficulties by reducing lung capacity. The Trendelenburg position (feet elevated higher than the head) is not recommended for patients with shortness of breath as it can increase pressure on the diaphragm and compromise breathing. The Prone position (lying face down) is also not suitable for patients experiencing shortness of breath as it may further restrict breathing.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and is experiencing fluid volume overload. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease experiencing fluid volume overload, the nurse should expect a decreased blood pressure. Fluid volume overload can lead to poor cardiac output, which in turn can cause a decrease in blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increased urine output is not expected in fluid volume overload; decreased heart rate is not typically associated with fluid volume overload; and an increased heart rate is more commonly seen in response to fluid overload to compensate for the decreased cardiac output.

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