ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
- A. Weigh the client weekly to monitor for fluid retention.
- B. Monitor the client's blood glucose level every 6 hours.
- C. Change the TPN tubing every 72 hours.
- D. Flush the TPN line with sterile water before and after administration.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor the client's blood glucose level every 6 hours. When a client is on TPN, it is crucial to monitor their blood glucose levels frequently to prevent complications such as hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Weighing the client weekly to monitor for fluid retention (choice A) is important but not as critical as monitoring blood glucose levels. Changing the TPN tubing every 72 hours (choice C) is important for infection control but does not directly relate to the client's metabolic status. Flushing the TPN line with sterile water before and after administration (choice D) is not a standard practice and may introduce contaminants into the TPN solution.
2. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare professional review before administering the medication?
- A. Potassium
- B. Serum creatinine
- C. Sodium
- D. Hemoglobin A1C
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: The healthcare professional should review serum creatinine levels before administering metformin to assess kidney function. Metformin is excreted by the kidneys, and checking serum creatinine helps prevent lactic acidosis, a potential side effect in individuals with impaired renal function. Choice A: Potassium levels are not directly related to the administration of metformin. While monitoring potassium levels is important for some medications, it is not the priority when initiating metformin. Choice C: Sodium levels are not typically assessed specifically before starting metformin. It is not a routine lab test required prior to metformin administration. Choice D: Hemoglobin A1C reflects long-term blood sugar control and is not a lab test that needs to be reviewed before initiating metformin. It is used to monitor diabetes management over time, not for immediate medication administration considerations.
3. A client with osteoporosis is being taught by a nurse how to prevent further bone loss. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take a calcium supplement daily.
- B. Perform weight-bearing exercises.
- C. Avoid weight-bearing exercises.
- D. Limit intake of high-phosphorus foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Perform weight-bearing exercises. Weight-bearing exercises are essential for preventing further bone loss and improving bone density in clients with osteoporosis. Calcium supplements alone may not be sufficient to prevent bone loss without adequate physical activity. Option C, 'Avoid weight-bearing exercises,' is incorrect as these exercises are beneficial for bone health. Option D, 'Limit intake of high-phosphorus foods,' is not directly related to preventing further bone loss in osteoporosis.
4. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of celiac disease. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Rice
- B. Barley soup
- C. Cornbread
- D. Potatoes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Barley soup. Barley contains gluten, which is harmful to individuals with celiac disease. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid barley-containing foods like barley soup. Choices A, C, and D are safe options for individuals with celiac disease as they do not contain gluten. Rice, cornbread, and potatoes are gluten-free and can be included in the client's diet.
5. A client is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?
- A. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
- B. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula.
- C. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding.
- D. A residual of 65 mL 1 hr post-feeding.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease are at risk for aspiration due to the potential of regurgitation, which can lead to aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs. Choice B (receiving a high-osmolarity formula) can lead to issues like diarrhea or dehydration but is not directly related to aspiration. Choice C (sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding) is actually a preventive measure to reduce the risk of aspiration. Choice D (a residual of 65 mL 1 hr post-feeding) is a concern for delayed gastric emptying but not a direct risk factor for aspiration.
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