ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for levothyroxine. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Calcium
- B. Sodium
- C. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
- D. Magnesium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). Monitoring TSH levels is crucial to assess the effectiveness of levothyroxine in clients with hypothyroidism. TSH is produced by the pituitary gland and stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroid hormones. In hypothyroidism, where the thyroid gland is underactive, administering levothyroxine helps to normalize thyroid hormone levels. Monitoring TSH levels allows the healthcare provider to adjust the levothyroxine dosage to ensure that thyroid hormone levels are within the therapeutic range. Choices A, B, and D (Calcium, Sodium, and Magnesium) are not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of levothyroxine therapy in hypothyroidism and would not provide relevant information regarding the medication's efficacy.
2. A nurse is preparing to assess a 2-week-old newborn. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
- A. Obtain the newborn's body temperature using a tympanic thermometer
- B. Pull the pinna of the infant's ear forward before inserting the probe
- C. Auscultate the newborn's apical pulse for 60 seconds
- D. Measure the newborn's head circumference over the eyebrows and below the occipital prominence
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auscultate the newborn's apical pulse for 60 seconds. When assessing a newborn, it is essential to auscultate the apical pulse for a full 60 seconds to accurately determine their heart rate. This method allows for a more precise measurement, considering the variability in heart rates in newborns. Choice A is incorrect because tympanic thermometers are not typically used for newborns due to their ear canals being small and not fully developed. Choice B is incorrect as pulling the pinna forward is not necessary for assessing the apical pulse. Choice D is incorrect as measuring head circumference involves a different assessment and is not relevant to determining the heart rate of a newborn.
3. How should fluid balance be assessed in a patient with heart failure?
- A. Monitor daily weight
- B. Monitor input and output
- C. Check for edema
- D. Monitor blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In patients with heart failure, monitoring daily weight is the most accurate method for assessing fluid balance. Weight gain can indicate fluid retention, a common issue in heart failure patients. Monitoring input and output (B) is essential but may not always accurately reflect fluid balance. Checking for edema (C) is important as it can indicate fluid accumulation, but daily weight monitoring is more precise. Monitoring blood pressure (D) is important in heart failure management but does not directly assess fluid balance.
4. A client is experiencing mild anxiety. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Feelings of dread
- B. Heightened perceptual field
- C. Rapid speech
- D. Purposeless activity
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In clients experiencing mild anxiety, a heightened perceptual field is a common finding. This means that the individual may be more alert and observant of their surroundings, sometimes to the point of being hyper-aware. Choices A, C, and D are less likely to be associated with mild anxiety. Feelings of dread (Choice A) are more commonly seen in moderate to severe anxiety. Rapid speech (Choice C) may be observed in some cases of anxiety, but it is not a specific hallmark of mild anxiety. Purposeless activity (Choice D) is more indicative of severe anxiety or other mental health conditions.
5. A healthcare provider is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following results indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Platelets 250,000/mm³
- B. aPTT 60 seconds
- C. Hemoglobin 15 g/dL
- D. INR 1.5
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An aPTT of 60 seconds indicates that the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is used to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic range for aPTT during heparin therapy is usually 1.5 to 2 times the control value, which is around 25-35 seconds. Platelets, hemoglobin, and INR values are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of heparin therapy.
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