Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for levothyroxine. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Calcium
• B. Sodium
• C. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
• D. Magnesium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). Monitoring TSH levels is crucial to assess the effectiveness of levothyroxine in clients with hypothyroidism. TSH is produced by the pituitary gland and stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroid hormones. In hypothyroidism, where the thyroid gland is underactive, administering levothyroxine helps to normalize thyroid hormone levels. Monitoring TSH levels allows the healthcare provider to adjust the levothyroxine dosage to ensure that thyroid hormone levels are within the therapeutic range. Choices A, B, and D (Calcium, Sodium, and Magnesium) are not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of levothyroxine therapy in hypothyroidism and would not provide relevant information regarding the medication's efficacy.

2. A client is preparing advance directives. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of advance directives?

• A. I cannot change my instructions once I have signed them.
• B. My doctor will need to approve my advance directives.
• C. I need a witness to sign my advance directives.
• D. I have the right to refuse treatment.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'I have the right to refuse treatment.' This statement shows an understanding of advance directives because they allow individuals to specify their treatment preferences in advance, including the right to refuse treatment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is inaccurate as individuals can update or change their advance directives at any time. Choice B is incorrect because while a doctor may discuss advance directives with the client, approval is not required for the directives to be valid. Choice C is also incorrect as a witness is typically required to verify the client's signature, not the other way around.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypertension
• C. Tachypnea
• D. Hypothermia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachypnea. When caring for a client with pneumonia, the nurse should expect tachypnea, which is rapid breathing. This occurs due to decreased oxygenation and lung function. Bradycardia (A) is not typically associated with pneumonia; instead, tachycardia may be present. Hypertension (B) is not a common manifestation of pneumonia; instead, hypotension may occur due to sepsis. Hypothermia (D) is not a typical finding in pneumonia; fever or an elevated temperature is more common.

4. Which lab value is critical for monitoring warfarin therapy?

• A. Monitor INR
• B. Monitor platelet count
• C. Monitor sodium levels
• D. Monitor calcium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor INR. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is crucial for monitoring warfarin therapy as it helps assess the therapeutic effectiveness and bleeding risks associated with the medication. INR measures the clotting tendency of blood, which is essential in determining the appropriate dosage of warfarin. Monitoring platelet count (B), sodium levels (C), or calcium levels (D) is not primarily used for assessing warfarin therapy. Platelet count is more relevant in assessing bleeding disorders, while sodium and calcium levels are typically monitored for different medical conditions unrelated to warfarin therapy.

5. A client in her second trimester of pregnancy is being taught by a nurse about managing nausea and vomiting. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. ''I will drink a glass of orange juice before I get out of bed.''
• B. ''I will eat small, frequent meals throughout the day.''
• C. ''I will take 1 g of acetaminophen every 6 hours.''
• D. ''I will avoid foods that have a strong odor.''

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Eating small, frequent meals is a recommended strategy to manage nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. This approach helps prevent an empty stomach, which can worsen symptoms. Option A is not as effective as eating small, frequent meals. Option C is unrelated to managing nausea and vomiting, and acetaminophen should only be taken as directed by a healthcare provider. Option D may help reduce nausea in some cases, but the most appropriate response related to managing symptoms is to eat small, frequent meals.

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