a nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is taking spironolactone which of the following values should the nurse report to the provi
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is taking spironolactone. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Potassium 5.2 mEq/L.' When a client is taking spironolactone, which is a potassium-sparing diuretic, monitoring potassium levels is crucial. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is higher than normal and can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, so it should be reported. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges and would not be of immediate concern when assessing a client taking spironolactone.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to place the client in a negative pressure room. This action is necessary to prevent the spread of tuberculosis, as it is transmitted via airborne particles. Placing the client in droplet isolation (choice C) is not sufficient for tuberculosis, as it requires airborne precautions. Wearing a surgical mask (choice B) when entering the client's room may not provide adequate protection against airborne transmission. Placing a surgical mask on the client when transporting them (choice D) does not address the need for environmental controls to contain infectious particles.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has fibromyalgia and requests pain medication. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pregabalin. Pregabalin is a first-line medication for treating pain in clients with fibromyalgia. It works by decreasing the number of pain signals sent out by damaged nerves. Choice B, Lorazepam, is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and not indicated for fibromyalgia pain. Choice C, Colchicine, is used to treat gout by reducing inflammation and not indicated for fibromyalgia. Choice D, Codeine, is an opioid analgesic that is not typically recommended for fibromyalgia due to concerns about tolerance and dependence.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a gastric bypass. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a postoperative client, a urine output of 30 mL/hr is a concerning finding as it indicates oliguria, which may suggest dehydration or kidney impairment. Adequate urine output is essential for monitoring renal function and overall fluid status. A heart rate of 78/min is within the normal range for an adult. An oxygen saturation of 95% is acceptable and indicates adequate oxygenation. Serosanguineous wound drainage is expected in the early postoperative period and is not a cause for immediate concern unless it becomes excessive or changes character.

5. A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with COPD is to encourage the client to increase physical activity. Increased physical activity helps manage COPD symptoms by improving lung function and preventing deconditioning. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position is not recommended for COPD as it can worsen breathing difficulties. Limiting fluid intake to prevent fluid overload is not typically necessary in COPD unless the client has comorbid conditions that require fluid restriction. Administering high-flow oxygen via mask may be necessary for COPD clients with severe hypoxemia, but it is not the initial action for planning care.

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