Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is taking spironolactone. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Sodium 144 mEq/L
• B. Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
• C. Bicarbonate 24 mEq/L
• D. Magnesium 1.9 mEq/L

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Potassium 5.2 mEq/L.' When a client is taking spironolactone, which is a potassium-sparing diuretic, monitoring potassium levels is crucial. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is higher than normal and can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, so it should be reported. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges and would not be of immediate concern when assessing a client taking spironolactone.

2. A healthcare provider is reviewing the history of a client who is requesting combination oral contraceptives. Which condition in the client's history is a contraindication?

• A. Hyperthyroidism.
• B. Thrombophlebitis.
• C. Diverticulosis.
• D. Hypocalcemia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Thrombophlebitis is a contraindication for the use of combination oral contraceptives due to the increased risk of thromboembolic events such as deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism. Hyperthyroidism, diverticulosis, and hypocalcemia are not typically contraindications for using combination oral contraceptives, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of a hemolytic transfusion reaction?

• A. Low back pain.
• B. Bradycardia.
• C. Chills.
• D. Distended neck veins.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Low back pain. Low back pain is a common sign of a hemolytic transfusion reaction, indicating the destruction of red blood cells. This finding requires immediate intervention as it can lead to serious complications such as renal failure. Bradycardia (choice B) is not typically associated with a hemolytic transfusion reaction. Chills (choice C) can be seen in febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reactions. Distended neck veins (choice D) are more indicative of fluid overload rather than a hemolytic reaction.

4. What is the best intervention for a patient experiencing respiratory distress?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Administer bronchodilators
• C. Administer IV fluids
• D. Provide humidified air

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the best intervention for a patient experiencing respiratory distress because it helps improve oxygenation and alleviate respiratory distress. Oxygen therapy is a critical and priority intervention in such cases as it aims to increase oxygen levels in the blood. Administering bronchodilators may be beneficial for specific respiratory conditions like asthma or COPD, but oxygen should be the initial priority. Administering IV fluids and providing humidified air, while important in certain situations, are not the primary interventions for respiratory distress.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving a continuous IV infusion of furosemide. Which of the following findings indicates the nurse should increase the client's infusion rate?

• A. Urine output of 20 mL/hr
• B. Heart rate of 90/min
• C. Sodium level of 138 mEq/L
• D. Weight gain of 1 kg in 24 hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A weight gain of 1 kg in 24 hours can indicate fluid retention and worsening heart failure, requiring an increase in diuresis. This finding suggests that the current diuretic therapy is not effective enough to manage the fluid overload, necessitating an increase in the infusion rate of furosemide. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the need for an increase in diuretic therapy in heart failure patients. Urine output of 20 mL/hr, a heart rate of 90/min, and a sodium level of 138 mEq/L are important parameters to monitor but do not specifically indicate the need to increase the infusion rate of furosemide.

Similar Questions