a nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is taking spironolactone which of the following values should the nurse report to the provi
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is taking spironolactone. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Potassium 5.2 mEq/L.' When a client is taking spironolactone, which is a potassium-sparing diuretic, monitoring potassium levels is crucial. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is higher than normal and can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, so it should be reported. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges and would not be of immediate concern when assessing a client taking spironolactone.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer a controlled substance. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse preparing to administer a controlled substance is to witness the waste of the controlled substance by another nurse. This practice is crucial to prevent misuse and ensure accurate documentation. Choice B is incorrect because disposing of the controlled substance by oneself without proper witnessing is not in accordance with safety protocols. Choice C is incorrect as leaving a controlled substance unattended in a client's room poses risks of diversion or unauthorized access. Choice D is incorrect because documenting the administration and signing off at the end of the shift is important but does not specifically address the issue of witnessing the waste of a controlled substance, which is a critical step in ensuring proper handling and accountability.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who has a patent ductus arteriosus. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A continuous murmur is a classic finding in a newborn with patent ductus arteriosus. This murmur is typically heard between the first and second heart sounds and throughout systole. Absent peripheral pulses (choice B) are not typically associated with patent ductus arteriosus. Increased blood pressure (choice C) and bounding pulses (choice D) are not commonly seen with this condition. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

4. A client who has a new prescription for lithium is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients prescribed lithium need regular monitoring of blood levels to ensure the medication's effectiveness and safety. This monitoring helps to keep the medication within the therapeutic range and prevent toxicity. Choice B is incorrect because lithium is usually taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Choice C is not directly related to lithium therapy; however, excessive sodium intake can affect lithium levels. Choice D is incorrect as abruptly stopping lithium can lead to adverse effects and should only be done under healthcare provider guidance.

5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has osteoporosis about preventing fractures. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to perform weight-bearing exercises regularly. Weight-bearing exercises help maintain bone density and reduce the risk of fractures in clients with osteoporosis. Increasing intake of calcium-rich foods (Choice A) is also beneficial for bone health. Avoiding weight-bearing exercises (Choice B) is incorrect as these exercises are essential for strengthening bones. Avoiding calcium supplements (Choice D) may not be necessary if the client's dietary intake is inadequate.

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