ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is taking spironolactone. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Sodium 144 mEq/L
- B. Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
- C. Bicarbonate 24 mEq/L
- D. Magnesium 1.9 mEq/L
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Potassium 5.2 mEq/L.' When a client is taking spironolactone, which is a potassium-sparing diuretic, monitoring potassium levels is crucial. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is higher than normal and can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, so it should be reported. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges and would not be of immediate concern when assessing a client taking spironolactone.
2. A client has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication at bedtime to prevent nausea.
- B. Take this medication with a full glass of milk.
- C. Notify your provider if you experience visual disturbances.
- D. Report any muscle pain to your provider.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Notify your provider if you experience visual disturbances.' Visual disturbances can indicate digoxin toxicity, so it is essential for clients taking digoxin to report any changes in vision to their healthcare provider. Option A is incorrect because the timing of digoxin administration is crucial, usually in the morning. Option B is inaccurate because digoxin should not be taken with milk as it can affect its absorption. Option D is not directly associated with digoxin use and should not be the priority instruction for a client on this medication.
3. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus about managing blood glucose levels. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. "I will monitor my blood pressure regularly."
- B. "I will keep my blood glucose level between 200 and 250 mg/dL."
- C. "I will take my insulin at the same time each day."
- D. "I will eat three large meals each day."
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Taking insulin at the same time each day helps maintain stable blood glucose levels and prevent complications.
4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report immediately?
- A. White blood cell count of 4,500/mm³
- B. Hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL
- C. Platelet count of 90,000/mm³
- D. Serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A platelet count of 90,000/mm³ indicates thrombocytopenia, which increases the risk of bleeding and requires immediate intervention. Thrombocytopenia can lead to serious bleeding complications, so it is crucial to address this finding promptly. A low white blood cell count (choice A) may indicate neutropenia but is not as immediately life-threatening as severe thrombocytopenia. A hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL (choice B) would require intervention but is not as urgent as addressing a critically low platelet count. A serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L (choice D) is on the lower side of normal but does not pose an immediate risk to the client's safety compared to severe thrombocytopenia.
5. A client with iron deficiency anemia has a new prescription for ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take with a glass of milk to prevent stomach upset.
- B. Take with orange juice to enhance absorption.
- C. Take on an empty stomach to increase absorption.
- D. Take with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction is to take ferrous sulfate on an empty stomach to increase absorption. This is because taking it with food or dairy products like milk can reduce its absorption. Orange juice is not recommended as it may interfere with the absorption of iron. Taking ferrous sulfate on an empty stomach may cause gastrointestinal upset, but this can be minimized by gradually increasing the dose.
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