ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam RN
1. A healthcare provider is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following tests is an indicator of long-term blood glucose control?
- A. Fasting blood glucose
- B. Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c)
- C. Random blood glucose
- D. Postprandial blood glucose
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c). HbA1c provides a measure of long-term blood glucose control over the past 2-3 months. This test reflects the average blood glucose levels during this period, making it a valuable tool in managing diabetes. Choices A, C, and D are not indicators of long-term blood glucose control. Fasting blood glucose measures the current glucose level after a period of not eating, random blood glucose provides a snapshot of the current glucose level, and postprandial blood glucose measures the glucose level after a meal.
2. A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation is scheduled for a nonstress test. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should fast for 12 hours before the test.
- B. I should expect the test to take about 10 minutes.
- C. I should have a full bladder for this test.
- D. I will need to have my blood glucose checked before the test.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nonstress test takes about 10 minutes and evaluates fetal heart rate in response to fetal movement. Choice A is incorrect because fasting is not required for a nonstress test. Choice C is incorrect as a full bladder is not necessary for this test. Choice D is incorrect as blood glucose checking is not typically part of a nonstress test.
3. Four clients present to the emergency department. The nurse should plan to see which of the following clients first?
- A. A 6-year-old client with a dislocated left shoulder
- B. A 26-year-old client with sickle cell disease and severe joint pain
- C. A 76-year-old client who is confused, febrile, and has foul-smelling urine
- D. A 50-year-old client with slurred speech, disorientation, and headache
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A client presenting with symptoms of a stroke, such as slurred speech, disorientation, and headache, requires immediate attention due to the possibility of a neurological emergency. Choices A, B, and C, although concerning, do not present with symptoms as urgent as those of a potential stroke. Dislocated shoulder, sickle cell disease with joint pain, and confusion with febrile illness can be addressed after ensuring the client with stroke-like symptoms receives prompt evaluation and intervention.
4. A client with cancer is about to receive low-dose brachytherapy via a vaginal implant. What intervention should be included in the care plan?
- A. Remove vaginal packing.
- B. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
- C. Ambulate the client four times daily.
- D. Keep the client NPO until therapy is complete.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention that should be included in the care plan for a client about to receive low-dose brachytherapy via a vaginal implant is to insert an indwelling urinary catheter. This is crucial to prevent bladder distention during brachytherapy, ensuring the treatment's effectiveness and the client's comfort. Removing vaginal packing (Choice A) may not be necessary or appropriate in this situation. Ambulating the client four times daily (Choice C) is a good nursing intervention for general patient care but is not specifically related to brachytherapy via a vaginal implant. Keeping the client NPO until therapy is complete (Choice D) is not necessary unless specifically indicated due to the treatment's nature or the client's condition.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer an IV medication to a client who has an allergy to latex. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Use latex gloves when administering the medication.
- B. Use latex-free syringes when administering the medication.
- C. Administer the medication through a latex-free IV port.
- D. Administer the medication with a latex-free syringe.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer IV medication to a client with a latex allergy is to administer the medication through a latex-free IV port. This is crucial as it prevents direct contact of the medication with latex, reducing the risk of an allergic reaction. Choice A is incorrect as using latex gloves can still expose the client to latex. Choice B is not the best option since the administration route is not specified, and using a latex-free syringe alone may not be sufficient to prevent exposure. Choice D is not the most appropriate because the IV tubing and ports should also be latex-free to ensure complete avoidance of latex contact.
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