a nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has diabetes mellitus which of the following tests is an indicator of long term blood glucose
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam RN

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following tests is an indicator of long-term blood glucose control?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c). HbA1c provides a measure of long-term blood glucose control over the past 2-3 months. This test reflects the average blood glucose levels during this period, making it a valuable tool in managing diabetes. Choices A, C, and D are not indicators of long-term blood glucose control. Fasting blood glucose measures the current glucose level after a period of not eating, random blood glucose provides a snapshot of the current glucose level, and postprandial blood glucose measures the glucose level after a meal.

2. A charge nurse is teaching a group of nurses about the correct use of restraints. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct use of restraints is crucial to ensure patient safety. Keeping the side rails of a toddler's crib elevated is a safe practice as it prevents falls and provides a level of protection without directly restraining the child. Placing a belt restraint on a child with seizures (Choice A) is inappropriate as it may restrict movement and cause harm during a seizure. Securing wrist restraints to bed rails for an adolescent (Choice B) is not recommended as it can lead to injuries and compromise circulation. Applying elbow immobilizers to an infant with a cleft lip injury (Choice C) is also incorrect as it does not address the issue of restraint and is not a standard practice in this situation.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hr postoperative following an inguinal hernia repair. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A low urine output of 20 mL/hr, less than the expected 30 mL/hr or more, could indicate renal impairment or inadequate fluid status postoperatively. In this scenario, early detection and intervention are crucial to prevent further complications. The other findings - heart rate of 88/min, pain rating of 4, and blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg - are within normal limits for a client 2 hr postoperative following an inguinal hernia repair and do not raise immediate concerns.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a complication that should be reported in clients receiving TPN. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac and neuromuscular complications. The other options are within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate concerns for a client receiving TPN. A blood glucose level of 130 mg/dL, serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L, and platelet count of 250,000/mm³ are all considered normal values and do not require immediate intervention.

5. A client is being taught about a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients taking furosemide should avoid alcohol because it can lead to dehydration and potential interactions with the medication. Choices A and B are incorrect because furosemide is a diuretic that can actually lower potassium levels, so the client should not expect an increase in potassium levels or solely rely on bananas for potassium intake. Choice C is incorrect because a cough is not a common side effect of furosemide and should not be a reason to stop taking the medication.

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