a nurse is planning care for a client who has a new ileostomy which of the following actions should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet

1. A client has a new ileostomy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Changing the entire pouching system weekly is essential for maintaining skin integrity and preventing infection. Option A is incorrect as applying a skin barrier should be done during the pouch change, not separately. Option B is incorrect as ileostomy pouches should be emptied when they are one-third to one-half full to prevent leakage. Option D is incorrect because cleansing the peristomal skin with alcohol can be too harsh and may cause skin irritation.

2. A patient is scheduled to receive a transfusion of packed RBCs. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Priming the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride is crucial before administering packed RBCs as it prevents hemolysis and ensures the safe transfusion of blood. Using a smaller 20- to 22-gauge IV catheter is recommended for packed RBCs to prevent hemolysis due to the small tubing size and faster flow rate. Obtaining filterless IV tubing is incorrect as blood products should be administered through a specialized filter to prevent potential clots or contaminants from reaching the patient. Placing blood in the warmer for an hour is unnecessary and could lead to overheating, potentially causing harm to the patient.

3. Which lab value should be monitored in patients receiving furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels in patients receiving furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss in the urine, potentially causing hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications associated with low potassium levels, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring sodium levels (choice B) is not typically necessary with furosemide use, as it primarily affects potassium levels. Calcium levels (choice C) and glucose levels (choice D) are not directly impacted by furosemide and require monitoring for other conditions or medications.

4. A client in active labor requests pain management. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During active labor, nonpharmacologic comfort measures like placing the client in a warm shower are effective for pain relief. Ondansetron (Choice A) is an antiemetic and not used for pain management during labor. Applying fundal pressure (Choice C) can cause harm and is not recommended due to the risk of uterine rupture. Assisting the client to a supine position (Choice D) is not ideal in labor as it can decrease blood flow to the placenta and is associated with increased maternal complications.

5. A client with a new diagnosis of Graves' disease and a prescription for propylthiouracil (PTU) is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because propylthiouracil (PTU) can increase the risk of infection. Therefore, the client should be aware that this medication may compromise their immune system, making them more susceptible to infections. Reporting any signs of infection promptly to the provider is crucial for timely intervention and management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because reporting a sore throat, assuming lifelong medication intake, or experiencing decreased appetite are not directly related to the medication's side effects or risks.

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