ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A nurse in a mental health facility receives a change of shift report on four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?
- A. Client placed in restraints due to aggressive behavior
- B. A new client with a history of 4.5 kg weight loss in the past two months
- C. Client receiving PRN dose of haloperidol 2 hours ago for anxiety
- D. Client receiving first ECT treatment today
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should plan to assess the client placed in restraints due to aggressive behavior first. Clients in restraints require immediate attention and frequent monitoring for safety. While weight loss, medication administration, and ECT treatment are important, the client in restraints is in a critical situation that requires immediate assessment and intervention.
2. A nurse is preparing a sterile field for a client with a surgical wound. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to maintain the sterile field?
- A. Open sterile packages using the flap closest to your body first.
- B. Don sterile gloves before opening the sterile package.
- C. Avoid reaching over the sterile field.
- D. Place sterile items at least 2.5 cm (1 in) from the edge of the sterile field.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action to maintain a sterile field is to avoid reaching over it. This prevents contamination of the sterile environment by reducing the risk of unintentionally dropping microorganisms from non-sterile areas onto the sterile field. Opening sterile packages using the flap closest to your body first (choice A) is a good practice but not directly related to maintaining the sterile field. Donning sterile gloves before opening the sterile package (choice B) is crucial for maintaining sterility but not specific to maintaining the sterile field. Placing sterile items at least 2.5 cm (1 in) from the edge of the sterile field (choice D) is important to prevent accidental contamination, but it is not the primary action to maintain the sterile field.
3. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. This medication will increase your potassium levels.
- B. You should take this medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
- C. This medication will decrease your blood glucose levels.
- D. You should increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include in the teaching for a client with a new prescription for furosemide is that the client should take the medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause gastrointestinal upset, so taking it with food can help reduce this side effect and improve medication tolerance. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not increase potassium levels, decrease blood glucose levels, or require an increase in the intake of potassium-rich foods. Therefore, the most important teaching point for the client is to take furosemide with food.
4. A client with a history of angina reports substernal chest pain that radiates to the left arm. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually.
- B. Administer 2L of oxygen via nasal cannula.
- C. Administer aspirin 325 mg orally.
- D. Obtain a 12-lead ECG.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client with a history of angina experiencing chest pain radiating to the left arm, obtaining a 12-lead ECG is the priority action to assess for myocardial infarction. An ECG helps in diagnosing and evaluating the extent of cardiac ischemia or infarction. Administering nitroglycerin, oxygen, or aspirin can follow once the ECG has been performed to confirm the diagnosis and guide further interventions. Administering nitroglycerin sublingually is often appropriate for angina but should not precede the ECG in this urgent scenario. Oxygen therapy and aspirin administration are important interventions but obtaining the ECG takes precedence in assessing for acute cardiac events.
5. How should a healthcare provider monitor a patient receiving heparin therapy?
- A. Monitor aPTT
- B. Monitor platelet count
- C. Monitor sodium levels
- D. Monitor calcium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) when a patient is receiving heparin therapy. aPTT monitoring is essential for assessing the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin, ensuring the patient is within the desired therapeutic range to prevent both clotting and bleeding. Monitoring platelet count (Choice B) is important for assessing for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but is not the primary monitoring parameter for heparin therapy. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice C) and calcium levels (Choice D) are not directly related to assessing the therapeutic effectiveness or potential side effects of heparin therapy.
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