ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A nurse in a mental health facility receives a change of shift report on four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?
- A. Client placed in restraints due to aggressive behavior
- B. A new client with a history of 4.5 kg weight loss in the past two months
- C. Client receiving PRN dose of haloperidol 2 hours ago for anxiety
- D. Client receiving first ECT treatment today
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should plan to assess the client placed in restraints due to aggressive behavior first. Clients in restraints require immediate attention and frequent monitoring for safety. While weight loss, medication administration, and ECT treatment are important, the client in restraints is in a critical situation that requires immediate assessment and intervention.
2. A client with preeclampsia and postpartum hemorrhage is being cared for by a nurse. The nurse should recognize that which of the following medications is contraindicated?
- A. Methylergonovine
- B. Misoprostol
- C. Dinoprostone
- D. Oxytocin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Methylergonovine. Methylergonovine is contraindicated in clients with preeclampsia due to the risk of hypertension. Misoprostol (choice B), Dinoprostone (choice C), and Oxytocin (choice D) are appropriate medications for managing postpartum hemorrhage and are not contraindicated in clients with preeclampsia.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is 36 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 92/min
- B. Serosanguineous wound drainage
- C. Yellow wound drainage
- D. Blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Yellow wound drainage can indicate infection, especially 36 hours postoperative, and should be reported to the provider promptly. Serosanguineous drainage is a normal finding in the early stages of wound healing, and a heart rate of 92/min and a blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg are within normal ranges for a postoperative client. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting the yellow wound drainage as it may require immediate intervention.
4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client receiving morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional identify as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Diarrhea.
- B. Urinary retention.
- C. Hypotension.
- D. Bradycardia.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Hypotension is a common adverse effect of morphine due to its vasodilatory properties. It can lead to a drop in blood pressure, which should be closely monitored during administration. Diarrhea (Choice A) is not a typical adverse effect of morphine. Urinary retention (Choice B) is a side effect of morphine due to its impact on the bladder muscles, but it is not classified as an adverse effect. Bradycardia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of morphine; instead, it tends to cause tachycardia.
5. Which diagnostic test is used to confirm tuberculosis (TB) infection?
- A. Chest X-ray
- B. Sputum culture
- C. Skin test (Mantoux)
- D. MRI
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The Mantoux skin test, also known as the Tuberculin Skin Test (TST), is used to confirm tuberculosis (TB) infection. This test involves injecting a small amount of tuberculin protein derivative under the top layer of the skin and then evaluating the immune system's response to the protein. A positive reaction indicates exposure to the TB bacteria. Chest X-rays are used to detect abnormalities in the lungs caused by TB but are not confirmatory. Sputum culture is used to identify the presence of TB bacteria in the sputum. MRIs are not typically used as a primary diagnostic tool for TB.
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