Nursing Elites

1. What is the priority intervention for a patient with dehydration?

• A. Administer IV fluids
• B. Monitor intake and output
• C. Administer oral fluids
• D. Provide electrolyte replacement

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer IV fluids. This intervention is the priority as it helps rapidly restore hydration in patients with dehydration by delivering fluids directly into the bloodstream. Monitoring intake and output (choice B) is important but comes after providing immediate fluid resuscitation. Administering oral fluids (choice C) may not be sufficient for a patient with dehydration who requires rapid rehydration. Providing electrolyte replacement (choice D) is essential but often follows fluid resuscitation to correct any electrolyte imbalances resulting from dehydration.

2. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation. The nurse should report which of the following laboratory results to the provider?

• A. Hemoglobin 11.2 g/dL
• B. Platelet count 148,000/mm3
• C. Leukocyte count 9,000/mm3
• D. Blood glucose 80 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A hemoglobin level of 11.2 g/dL is below the normal range for a client who is 36 weeks gestation and should be reported to the provider.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• B. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
• C. Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
• D. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 5.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is elevated and should be monitored in clients taking spironolactone, which is a potassium-sparing medication. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial as spironolactone can cause hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels are not typically affected by spironolactone. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on monitoring the potassium levels in this scenario.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) and is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory values indicates that the client's heparin therapy is effective?

• A. aPTT 75 seconds.
• B. INR 1.2.
• C. Hemoglobin 10 g/dL.
• D. Fibrinogen level 350 mg/dL.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An aPTT of 75 seconds indicates that heparin therapy is within the therapeutic range for a client with DVT. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy's effectiveness. Choice B, INR 1.2, is not the correct answer because INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin, a different anticoagulant, not heparin. Choice C, Hemoglobin 10 g/dL, is not a measure of heparin therapy effectiveness. Choice D, Fibrinogen level 350 mg/dL, is not a specific indicator of heparin therapy effectiveness for DVT.

5. A client with heart failure at risk for pulmonary edema should receive which intervention to improve oxygenation?

• A. Place the client in a supine position.
• B. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
• C. Elevate the client's legs when in bed.
• D. Administer oxygen via non-rebreather mask.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering oxygen via a non-rebreather mask is the appropriate intervention for a client at risk for pulmonary edema as it helps improve oxygenation by delivering a high concentration of oxygen. Placing the client in a supine position can exacerbate pulmonary edema by increasing venous return to the heart, leading to fluid overload. Encouraging increased fluid intake is contraindicated in clients with heart failure and at risk for pulmonary edema, as it can worsen fluid accumulation. Elevating the client's legs when in bed is more appropriate for clients with conditions such as venous insufficiency or edema in the lower extremities, not for pulmonary edema.

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