ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. What is the most critical lab value to monitor for a patient on heparin therapy?
- A. Monitor aPTT levels
- B. Monitor platelet count
- C. Monitor INR levels
- D. Monitor sodium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT levels. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial for assessing the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin, as it reflects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the patient is within the therapeutic range of heparin, minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. Platelet count (choice B) is important to assess for potential heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but is not the primary lab value to monitor during heparin therapy. INR levels (choice C) are monitored in patients on warfarin therapy, not heparin. Sodium levels (choice D) are not directly related to heparin therapy monitoring.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who has increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Increased level of consciousness.
- C. Tachycardia.
- D. Hyperactive bowel sounds.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachycardia. In a client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP), tachycardia is a common finding. This is due to the body's compensatory mechanisms in response to the increased pressure. Bradycardia (choice A) is not typically associated with increased ICP and may indicate a different issue. Increased level of consciousness (choice B) is unlikely with increased ICP, as it often leads to altered mental status. Hyperactive bowel sounds (choice D) are not directly related to increased ICP and are more indicative of gastrointestinal issues.
3. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes the loss of potassium in the urine, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is the opposite of the expected electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is not a common side effect of furosemide.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer blood to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Check the client's identification bracelet.
- B. Obtain the client's vital signs.
- C. Initiate the transfusion slowly over the first 15 minutes.
- D. Verify the client's blood type and Rh factor.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to verify the client's blood type and Rh factor first before administering blood. This is crucial to ensure compatibility and prevent transfusion reactions. Checking the client's identification bracelet (Choice A) is important but should come after verifying blood type. Obtaining vital signs (Choice B) and initiating the transfusion slowly (Choice C) are important steps but verifying blood type is the priority to ensure safe blood administration.
5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is receiving opioid analgesics. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 94%
- B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
- C. Respiratory rate of 12/min
- D. Heart rate of 88/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 12/min may indicate respiratory depression, a potential side effect of opioid analgesics. Respiratory depression can be a serious complication that requires immediate intervention. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial in clients receiving opioids to prevent adverse events. Oxygen saturation, blood pressure, and heart rate are important parameters to assess, but a low respiratory rate is a more critical finding that warrants immediate reporting to the healthcare provider.
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