Nursing Elites

1. What is the most critical lab value to monitor for a patient on heparin therapy?

• A. Monitor aPTT levels
• B. Monitor platelet count
• C. Monitor INR levels
• D. Monitor sodium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT levels. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial for assessing the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin, as it reflects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the patient is within the therapeutic range of heparin, minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. Platelet count (choice B) is important to assess for potential heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but is not the primary lab value to monitor during heparin therapy. INR levels (choice C) are monitored in patients on warfarin therapy, not heparin. Sodium levels (choice D) are not directly related to heparin therapy monitoring.

2. A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients. Which result is reportable?

• A. Herpes simplex
• B. Human papillomavirus
• C. Candidiasis
• D. Chlamydia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chlamydia is a reportable sexually transmitted infection. Reporting cases of Chlamydia to the health department is crucial for disease surveillance, contact tracing, and implementing public health interventions. Herpes simplex, human papillomavirus, and candidiasis are not typically reportable infections, as they do not pose the same public health risks as Chlamydia.

3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid eating foods that are high in fat.
• B. Monitor for black, tarry stools while taking this medication.
• C. Avoid taking this medication with grapefruit juice.
• D. Take this medication on an empty stomach.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to advise the client to monitor for black, tarry stools while taking clopidogrel. This is important because it helps detect gastrointestinal bleeding, a potential side effect of the medication. Choice A is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to avoid foods high in fat while taking clopidogrel. Choice C is incorrect as grapefruit juice interaction is not a concern with clopidogrel. Choice D is incorrect as clopidogrel can be taken with or without food.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Abdominal distention
• B. Burning sensation in the chest
• C. Constipation
• D. Frequent belching

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Burning sensation in the chest. A burning sensation in the chest is a classic symptom of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Abdominal distention (Choice A) is not typically associated with GERD; it is more commonly seen in conditions like bowel obstruction. Constipation (Choice C) is not a hallmark symptom of GERD, as it is more related to gastrointestinal motility issues. Frequent belching (Choice D) can occur with GERD, but it is not as specific or characteristic as the burning sensation in the chest.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is 4 hours postpartum. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Lochia that is red and contains small clots.
• B. Fundus firm at the umbilicus.
• C. Fundus deviated to the right.
• D. Moderate perineal pain with swelling.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A fundus that is deviated to the right may indicate a full bladder, which should be addressed postpartum. Choice A is incorrect because red lochia with small clots is expected during the early postpartum period. Choice B is incorrect as the fundus should be firm and midline, not at the umbilicus. Choice D is incorrect as perineal pain and swelling are common postpartum findings that do not require immediate reporting to the provider.

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