Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client who has heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L
• B. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
• C. Heart rate of 60/min
• D. Sodium 140 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Heart rate of 60/min. A heart rate of 60/min is borderline bradycardia, which can be a sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia, so any further decrease in heart rate should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and D are within the normal range and not specifically related to potential digoxin toxicity, so they do not require immediate reporting.

2. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Limit fluid intake
• B. Increase potassium intake
• C. Provide a high-protein diet
• D. Administer IV antibiotics

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Limiting fluid intake is essential in managing patients with chronic kidney disease to prevent fluid overload, which can worsen kidney function. Increasing potassium intake is not recommended as patients with kidney disease often need to limit potassium. Providing a high-protein diet may put extra strain on the kidneys, so it is not ideal. Administering IV antibiotics is not a standard treatment for chronic kidney disease.

3. When providing teaching for a child prescribed ferrous sulfate, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take with meals
• B. Take at bedtime
• C. Take with a glass of milk
• D. Take with a glass of orange juice

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Take with a glass of orange juice.' Ferrous sulfate is best absorbed with vitamin C, making orange juice the preferred choice. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because taking ferrous sulfate with meals, at bedtime, or with milk can reduce its absorption due to interactions with food components like calcium, inhibiting the iron absorption process.

4. A charge nurse is teaching new staff members about factors that increase a client's risk of becoming violent. Which of the following risk factors should the nurse include as the best predictor of future violence?

• A. Experiencing delusions.
• B. Male gender.
• C. Previous violent behavior.
• D. A history of being in prison.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Previous violent behavior. This is the best predictor of future violence as individuals who have a history of violent behavior are more likely to engage in violent acts in the future. While experiencing delusions and being male may contribute to an increased risk of violence in certain situations, they are not as strong predictors as a history of violence. Similarly, having a history of being in prison may indicate a higher likelihood of violence, but it is not as directly linked to future violent behavior as previous violent actions.

5. A client is 24 hours postoperative following a right-sided mastectomy. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Place the client in the supine position.
• B. Encourage the client to lift objects with the right arm.
• C. Measure the client's blood pressure on the right arm.
• D. Elevate the client's right arm on a pillow.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevating the client's right arm on a pillow is essential post-mastectomy to reduce swelling and promote circulation. Placing the client in the supine position may not be comfortable or ideal after a mastectomy. Encouraging the client to lift objects with the right arm can strain the surgical site and hinder healing. Measuring the client's blood pressure on the right arm should be avoided to prevent disruption to the area and inaccurate readings.

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