Nursing Elites

1. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Limit fluid intake
• B. Increase potassium intake
• C. Provide a high-protein diet
• D. Administer IV antibiotics

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Limiting fluid intake is essential in managing patients with chronic kidney disease to prevent fluid overload, which can worsen kidney function. Increasing potassium intake is not recommended as patients with kidney disease often need to limit potassium. Providing a high-protein diet may put extra strain on the kidneys, so it is not ideal. Administering IV antibiotics is not a standard treatment for chronic kidney disease.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has undergone a bronchoscopy. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 95%
• B. Blood pressure of 130/85 mm Hg
• C. Coughing up small amounts of sputum
• D. Absent gag reflex

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An absent gag reflex is a critical finding that requires immediate intervention to prevent aspiration. This can lead to the aspiration of oral or gastric contents into the lungs, potentially causing serious respiratory complications. Oxygen saturation of 95% is within the normal range, a blood pressure of 130/85 mm Hg is also within normal limits, and coughing up small amounts of sputum is an expected finding after a bronchoscopy procedure.

3. A client with osteoporosis needs to increase calcium intake. Which of the following foods should be recommended by the nurse?

• A. Carrots
• B. Broccoli
• C. Chicken
• D. Bananas

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Broccoli. Broccoli is rich in calcium and is a suitable food to recommend to clients with osteoporosis to increase their calcium intake. Carrots, chicken, and bananas are not as high in calcium content compared to broccoli and therefore not the most appropriate choices for increasing calcium intake in clients with osteoporosis.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who has a patent ductus arteriosus. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?

• A. Continuous murmur.
• B. Absent peripheral pulses.
• C. Increased blood pressure.
• D. Bounding pulses.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A continuous murmur is a classic finding in a newborn with patent ductus arteriosus. This murmur is typically heard between the first and second heart sounds and throughout systole. Absent peripheral pulses (choice B) are not typically associated with patent ductus arteriosus. Increased blood pressure (choice C) and bounding pulses (choice D) are not commonly seen with this condition. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

5. A healthcare provider is performing a skin assessment for a client and observes several skin lesions. Which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider?

• A. Raised nevus
• B. Macule
• C. Vesicle
• D. Irregularly shaped mole

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An irregularly shaped mole is a priority finding to report to the provider as it can be indicative of melanoma, a type of skin cancer. Melanoma is a serious condition that requires prompt evaluation and treatment. Raised nevus, macule, and vesicle are common skin findings that are typically benign and may not require immediate attention. Therefore, the irregularly shaped mole stands out as the priority due to its association with potential malignancy.

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