Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?

• A. A client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring.
• B. A client who has diabetes mellitus and a hemoglobin A1C of 6.8%.
• C. A client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities.
• D. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. New onset of tachypnea indicates a potential respiratory complication that requires immediate attention. Assessing the client with a hip fracture and tachypnea first is crucial to address the respiratory issue and prevent further deterioration. Choices A, B, and C do not present immediate life-threatening complications that require urgent assessment compared to a new onset of tachypnea.

2. Which of the following interventions is the best to improve the healing of a pressure ulcer for a client with a low serum albumin level?

• A. Provide high-calorie, high-protein supplements
• B. Consult a dietitian to create a high-protein diet plan
• C. Administer nutritional supplements
• D. Increase IV fluids to prevent dehydration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Consulting a dietitian to create a high-protein diet plan is the best intervention for a client with a low serum albumin level to promote healing. This approach ensures that the client receives the specific nutrients needed for wound healing. Providing high-calorie, high-protein supplements (choice A) may not address the specific nutritional deficiencies of the client. Administering nutritional supplements (choice C) is vague and may not target the necessary nutrients for wound healing. Increasing IV fluids (choice D) is important for hydration but does not directly address the nutritional needs of the client to improve ulcer healing.

3. What are the signs and symptoms of opioid withdrawal, and how should they be managed?

• A. Nausea, sweating, and increased heart rate; manage with methadone
• B. Pain and restlessness; manage with naloxone
• C. Hallucinations and muscle cramps; manage with clonidine
• D. Severe vomiting and seizures; manage with benzodiazepines

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The signs and symptoms of opioid withdrawal include nausea, sweating, and increased heart rate. Methadone is commonly used to manage opioid withdrawal symptoms by alleviating them. Choice B, managing with naloxone, is incorrect as naloxone is primarily used for opioid overdose reversal, not withdrawal. Choice C, managing with clonidine, is incorrect as clonidine is used to manage some symptoms of withdrawal, such as anxiety, agitation, and hypertension, but not hallucinations. Choice D, managing with benzodiazepines, is incorrect as benzodiazepines are not typically used as first-line treatment for opioid withdrawal; they may be considered in specific cases but are not a standard approach.

4. A nurse is caring for a female client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Position the drainage bag below the bladder
• B. Wipe the drainage port after emptying
• C. Insert the catheter using sterile technique
• D. Avoid cleansing the urinary meatus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to wipe the drainage port after emptying. This action helps reduce the risk of infection by maintaining cleanliness. Positioning the drainage bag below the bladder (choice A) is incorrect as it should be positioned below the level of the bladder to prevent backflow of urine. Inserting the catheter using sterile technique (choice C) is not necessary for routine emptying of the drainage bag. Avoiding cleansing the urinary meatus (choice D) is incorrect as proper hygiene should be maintained to prevent infections.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has an altered mental status and has become aggressive. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify with the provider prior to administration?

• A. Haloperidol
• B. Zolpidem
• C. Morphine
• D. Lorazepam

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Zolpidem. Zolpidem is a sedative-hypnotic medication that can worsen altered mental status, especially in clients who are already aggressive. Therefore, the nurse should clarify this prescription with the provider before administration to ensure it is safe for the client. Choice A, Haloperidol, is an antipsychotic commonly used to manage aggression in clients with altered mental status, making it an appropriate choice in this scenario. Choice C, Morphine, is an opioid analgesic and would not directly impact the client's altered mental status or aggression. Choice D, Lorazepam, is a benzodiazepine used to manage anxiety and agitation, which could be beneficial in this situation but does not have the same potential to exacerbate altered mental status as Zolpidem.

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