a nurse is receiving change of shift report for a group of clients which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first
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1. A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. New onset of tachypnea indicates a potential respiratory complication that requires immediate attention. Assessing the client with a hip fracture and tachypnea first is crucial to address the respiratory issue and prevent further deterioration. Choices A, B, and C do not present immediate life-threatening complications that require urgent assessment compared to a new onset of tachypnea.

2. A client with an NG tube is experiencing nausea and a decrease in gastric secretions. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for a client with an NG tube experiencing nausea and decreased gastric secretions is to irrigate the NG tube with sterile water. This can help clear any blockages in the tube, which may be causing the symptoms. Positioning the client on their left side may be helpful for enteral feedings but is not the priority in this situation. Replacing the NG tube should not be the initial step unless irrigation fails to resolve the issue. Increasing the suction setting without attempting to clear the blockage can be harmful to the client.

3. A nurse is collecting data from a postpartum client who had a vaginal birth 2 days ago. Which of the following findings is the nurse's priority to report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Burning with urination.' Burning with urination can indicate a urinary tract infection postpartum, which requires immediate attention to prevent complications. Bright red bleeding and heavy lochia flow are expected findings in the early postpartum period as the uterus continues to contract and expel lochia. A headache alone is not uncommon postpartum and is often attributed to hormonal changes, dehydration, or fatigue, and can be managed with adequate rest, hydration, and pain relief. Therefore, the priority here is to address the potential infection indicated by burning with urination.

4. Which dietary advice is most appropriate for a client with chronic kidney disease?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate dietary advice for a client with chronic kidney disease is to limit intake of potassium-rich foods. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys have difficulty filtering potassium from the blood, leading to high levels that can be harmful. Therefore, reducing potassium intake is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are not the best options for individuals with chronic kidney disease. Increasing intake of fruits and vegetables (choice A) may actually increase potassium consumption. Increasing intake of dairy products (choice C) can lead to higher phosphorus and potassium levels. Reducing protein-rich foods (choice D) is not the primary focus in the early stages of chronic kidney disease, as protein is necessary for overall health unless kidney function declines significantly.

5. A nurse is maintaining droplet precautions for a client who has meningitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when maintaining droplet precautions for a client with meningitis is to wear a surgical mask within 3 feet of the client. This is essential to prevent the transmission of meningitis via respiratory droplets. Choice A is incorrect because wearing a gown is not specifically required for droplet precautions. Choice B suggests maintaining a distance of 6 feet, which is more applicable to airborne precautions, not droplet precautions. Choice D is incorrect as gloves should be removed and disposed of properly, but it is not related to droplet precautions specifically.

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