Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?

• A. A client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring.
• B. A client who has diabetes mellitus and a hemoglobin A1C of 6.8%.
• C. A client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities.
• D. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. New onset of tachypnea indicates a potential respiratory complication that requires immediate attention. Assessing the client with a hip fracture and tachypnea first is crucial to address the respiratory issue and prevent further deterioration. Choices A, B, and C do not present immediate life-threatening complications that require urgent assessment compared to a new onset of tachypnea.

2. A nurse is caring for a client with dementia who frequently attempts to get out of bed unsupervised. What is the best intervention?

• A. Use restraints to prevent the client from getting out of bed
• B. Encourage family members to stay with the client at all times
• C. Use a bed exit alarm system
• D. Keep the client's room dark and quiet to reduce stimulation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best intervention for a client with dementia who frequently attempts to get out of bed unsupervised is to use a bed exit alarm system (Choice C). A bed exit alarm can alert staff when the client tries to leave the bed, helping to prevent falls. Using restraints (Choice A) is not recommended as it can lead to physical and psychological harm. While having family members present (Choice B) can be beneficial, it may not be feasible at all times. Keeping the client's room dark and quiet (Choice D) may not address the immediate safety concern of the client attempting to get out of bed.

3. Which symptom would indicate a complication after a subdural hematoma?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Decreased level of consciousness
• C. High-pitched cry
• D. Bulging posterior fontanelle

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A bulging posterior fontanelle is a sign of increased intracranial pressure in infants, not a common symptom after a subdural hematoma. In the context of a subdural hematoma, a decreased level of consciousness is more indicative of a complication as it can be a sign of worsening brain function due to increased pressure on the brain from the collection of blood in the subdural space. Increased appetite and high-pitched cry are not typically associated with complications of a subdural hematoma.

4. When caring for a client diagnosed with delirium, what condition should the nurse prioritize investigating?

• A. Investigate medication history
• B. Investigate sensory deficits
• C. Investigate cognitive functioning
• D. Investigate for signs of infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to investigate for signs of infection when caring for a client diagnosed with delirium. Infections can frequently cause or worsen delirium. While investigating medication history, sensory deficits, and cognitive functioning may be important in the overall care of the client, when prioritizing, the nurse should first rule out or address potential infections due to their significant impact on delirium.

5. A client has a prescription for ranitidine 150 mg PO BID. Available is ranitidine syrup 15 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer each day?

• A. 20 mL
• B. 15 mL
• C. 25 mL
• D. 10 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To administer a total of 300 mg daily (150 mg PO BID), the nurse should give 20 mL of the syrup. This is calculated by dividing the total daily dose (300 mg) by the concentration of the syrup (15 mg/mL), which equals 20 mL. Choice B (15 mL), C (25 mL), and D (10 mL) are incorrect because they do not accurately calculate the required volume of syrup needed to deliver the prescribed dose.

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