ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A nurse is planning assignments for a licensed practical nurse (LPN) during a staffing shortage. Which client should be delegated to the LPN?
- A. A client with an Hgb of 6.3 g/dl and a prescription for packed RBCs.
- B. A client who sustained a concussion and has unequal pupils.
- C. A client who is postoperative following a bowel resection with an NG tube set to continuous suction.
- D. A client who fractured his femur yesterday and is experiencing shortness of breath.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the client postoperative following a bowel resection with an NG tube set to continuous suction requires routine postoperative care, which an LPN can manage. Choice A involves administering blood products, which typically requires assessment and monitoring by a registered nurse. Choice B indicates a potentially serious neurological condition that requires assessment by a higher-level provider. Choice D suggests a client experiencing respiratory distress, which requires immediate assessment and intervention by a registered nurse or physician.
2. A charge nurse is teaching a group of newly licensed nurses about the correct use of restraints. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Placing a belt restraint on a school-age child who has seizures.
- B. Securing wrist restraints to the bed rails for an adolescent.
- C. Applying elbow immobilizers to an infant receiving cleft lip injury.
- D. Keeping the side rails of a toddler's crib elevated.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Keeping the side rails of a toddler's crib elevated is an appropriate use of restraints to prevent the child from falling, which is an essential safety measure. Placing a belt restraint on a school-age child with seizures (choice A) is not recommended as it can be dangerous during a seizure. Securing wrist restraints to the bed rails for an adolescent (choice B) may cause harm and should not be done routinely. Applying elbow immobilizers to an infant receiving a cleft lip injury (choice C) is not a standard practice for managing this condition and would not be appropriate.
3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving heparin to treat deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. aPTT of 38 seconds
- B. Hemoglobin of 15 g/dL
- C. Platelet count of 80,000/mm3
- D. INR of 1.0
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A platelet count of 80,000/mm3 is below the normal range and should be reported to the provider due to the risk of bleeding. Heparin can cause a rare but serious side effect known as heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, leading to a decrease in platelet count and an increased risk of bleeding. The aPTT of 38 seconds, hemoglobin of 15 g/dL, and an INR of 1.0 are within normal ranges and not directly concerning in this scenario. Platelet count is crucial to monitor in clients receiving heparin therapy to ensure adequate clotting function and prevent bleeding complications.
4. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will take warfarin every other day.
- B. I will eat more leafy green vegetables while taking warfarin.
- C. I will use a soft toothbrush while taking warfarin.
- D. I will have my INR checked regularly while taking warfarin.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Eating more leafy green vegetables can increase vitamin K intake, which may reduce the effectiveness of warfarin. This can lead to fluctuations in the International Normalized Ratio (INR) levels, affecting the medication's efficacy. Choices A, C, and D are correct statements. Taking warfarin every other day, using a soft toothbrush to prevent gum bleeding, and having regular INR checks are all appropriate and important actions when taking warfarin.
5. A client with heart failure at risk for pulmonary edema should receive which intervention to improve oxygenation?
- A. Place the client in a supine position.
- B. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
- C. Elevate the client's legs when in bed.
- D. Administer oxygen via non-rebreather mask.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering oxygen via a non-rebreather mask is the appropriate intervention for a client at risk for pulmonary edema as it helps improve oxygenation by delivering a high concentration of oxygen. Placing the client in a supine position can exacerbate pulmonary edema by increasing venous return to the heart, leading to fluid overload. Encouraging increased fluid intake is contraindicated in clients with heart failure and at risk for pulmonary edema, as it can worsen fluid accumulation. Elevating the client's legs when in bed is more appropriate for clients with conditions such as venous insufficiency or edema in the lower extremities, not for pulmonary edema.
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