ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A nurse is planning assignments for a licensed practical nurse (LPN) during a staffing shortage. Which client should be delegated to the LPN?
- A. A client with an Hgb of 6.3 g/dl and a prescription for packed RBCs.
- B. A client who sustained a concussion and has unequal pupils.
- C. A client who is postoperative following a bowel resection with an NG tube set to continuous suction.
- D. A client who fractured his femur yesterday and is experiencing shortness of breath.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the client postoperative following a bowel resection with an NG tube set to continuous suction requires routine postoperative care, which an LPN can manage. Choice A involves administering blood products, which typically requires assessment and monitoring by a registered nurse. Choice B indicates a potentially serious neurological condition that requires assessment by a higher-level provider. Choice D suggests a client experiencing respiratory distress, which requires immediate assessment and intervention by a registered nurse or physician.
2. A nurse is reviewing the facility's safety protocols concerning newborn abduction with the parent of a newborn. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. Staff will apply the identification band after the first bath.
- B. I will not make public announcements about my baby's birth.
- C. I can remove my baby's identification band as long as they are in my room.
- D. I can leave my baby in my room while walking in the hallway.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Not making public announcements about the baby's birth is crucial in preventing newborn abduction as it avoids exposing personal information. Choice A is incorrect because the identification band should be applied immediately after birth, not after the first bath. Choice C is incorrect as the baby's identification band should never be removed by the parent. Choice D is incorrect as parents should not leave their baby unattended in the room while they are outside the room.
3. A nurse is planning care for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?
- A. A client who has a fractured femur and reports feeling short of breath.
- B. A client who is postoperative and has abdominal distention.
- C. A client who is receiving IV fluids and has a temperature of 38.5°C (101.3°F).
- D. A client who has cancer and has been receiving radiation therapy.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A client with a fractured femur and reports feeling short of breath is at risk for a fat embolism, which is a medical emergency. The nurse should assess this client first to rule out this serious complication. Choice B may indicate paralytic ileus, which is important but not immediately life-threatening compared to a fat embolism. Choice C has a fever, which indicates infection but is not as urgent as a potential fat embolism. Choice D, a client receiving radiation therapy, is not experiencing an acute, life-threatening complication that requires immediate assessment compared to a fat embolism.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Alopecia
- B. Weight gain of 1 kg (2.2 lb) in 24 hours
- C. White blood cell count of 6,000/mm³
- D. Temperature of 37.2°C (99°F)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A weight gain of 1 kg (2.2 lb) in 24 hours is concerning as it indicates fluid retention, which can be a sign of complications in clients receiving chemotherapy. Rapid weight gain can be associated with conditions like fluid overload or electrolyte imbalances, which need prompt medical attention. Choices A, C, and D are not typically immediate concerns related to chemotherapy. Alopecia (choice A) is a common side effect of chemotherapy, a white blood cell count of 6,000/mm³ (choice C) falls within the normal range, and a temperature of 37.2°C (99°F) (choice D) is slightly elevated but not a critical finding in this context.
5. What is the first intervention for a patient experiencing anaphylactic shock?
- A. Administer epinephrine
- B. Administer oxygen
- C. Administer corticosteroids
- D. Administer antihistamines
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylactic shock as it helps reverse the severe allergic reaction by constricting blood vessels, increasing heart rate, and opening airways for improved breathing. Oxygen (Choice B) can be administered after epinephrine to support oxygenation. Corticosteroids (Choice C) may be used to prevent a biphasic reaction but are not the initial intervention. Antihistamines (Choice D) can help with itching and hives but do not address the life-threatening symptoms of anaphylaxis.
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