ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A nurse is planning assignments for a licensed practical nurse (LPN) during a staffing shortage. Which client should be delegated to the LPN?
- A. A client with an Hgb of 6.3 g/dl and a prescription for packed RBCs.
- B. A client who sustained a concussion and has unequal pupils.
- C. A client who is postoperative following a bowel resection with an NG tube set to continuous suction.
- D. A client who fractured his femur yesterday and is experiencing shortness of breath.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the client postoperative following a bowel resection with an NG tube set to continuous suction requires routine postoperative care, which an LPN can manage. Choice A involves administering blood products, which typically requires assessment and monitoring by a registered nurse. Choice B indicates a potentially serious neurological condition that requires assessment by a higher-level provider. Choice D suggests a client experiencing respiratory distress, which requires immediate assessment and intervention by a registered nurse or physician.
2. What is the appropriate intervention for a patient with hypertension refusing medication?
- A. Educate the patient on the importance of medication
- B. Respect the patient's decision
- C. Inform the healthcare provider
- D. Explore alternative treatment options
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Educate the patient on the importance of medication. Providing education to the patient is crucial in promoting understanding of the condition and the necessity of medication. By enhancing the patient's knowledge, healthcare providers can empower them to make informed decisions regarding their health. Choice B, respecting the patient's decision, may not be appropriate in this scenario as untreated hypertension can lead to serious complications. Choice C, informing the healthcare provider, is important but should be done after attempting to educate the patient. Choice D, exploring alternative treatment options, may be considered if the patient has concerns or side effects related to the medication, but initially, educating the patient about the importance of medication is key.
3. What is the best way to assess a patient's respiratory function after surgery?
- A. Check oxygen saturation
- B. Auscultate lung sounds
- C. Check for abnormal breath sounds
- D. Check skin color
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to check oxygen saturation. This is because checking oxygen saturation provides a direct measure of how well the patient is oxygenating post-surgery. It helps healthcare providers assess if the patient is receiving enough oxygen to meet their body's needs. Auscultating lung sounds (choice B) is important to assess respiratory function but may not provide an immediate indication of oxygenation status. Checking for abnormal breath sounds (choice C) is relevant but does not directly assess oxygenation levels. Checking skin color (choice D) can provide some information about oxygenation, but it is not as precise or direct as measuring oxygen saturation.
4. A client is receiving furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours.
- B. Heart rate of 68/min.
- C. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L.
- D. Urine output of 60 mL/hr.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A heart rate of 68/min is lower than expected and should be reported as it may indicate digoxin toxicity. Choices A, C, and D are within normal limits for a client receiving furosemide for heart failure and do not require immediate reporting. Weight loss may be expected due to diuretic therapy, a potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L is within the normal range, and a urine output of 60 mL/hr indicates adequate renal perfusion.
5. A client is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?
- A. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
- B. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula.
- C. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding.
- D. A residual of 65 mL 1 hr post-feeding.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease are at risk for aspiration due to the potential of regurgitation, which can lead to aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs. Choice B (receiving a high-osmolarity formula) can lead to issues like diarrhea or dehydration but is not directly related to aspiration. Choice C (sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding) is actually a preventive measure to reduce the risk of aspiration. Choice D (a residual of 65 mL 1 hr post-feeding) is a concern for delayed gastric emptying but not a direct risk factor for aspiration.
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