a nurse is assessing a client who has just received an opioid medication which of the following findings should the nurse monitor for first
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has just received an opioid medication. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client receives an opioid medication, the nurse should first monitor for respiratory depression as it is a life-threatening adverse effect associated with opioids. This can lead to inadequate ventilation and hypoxia, requiring immediate intervention. Constipation, drowsiness, and orthostatic hypotension are also common side effects of opioids but are not as immediately life-threatening as respiratory depression.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client with thrombocytopenia. Which action should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include for a client with thrombocytopenia is to provide a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Providing a stool softener helps prevent constipation, straining, and subsequent bleeding, which is crucial for clients with thrombocytopenia. Encouraging the client to floss daily (Choice A) is important for oral hygiene but not directly related to thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (Choice B) is more related to infection control than managing thrombocytopenia. Avoiding serving raw vegetables (Choice D) is important for clients with compromised immune systems to reduce the risk of foodborne illnesses but is not directly related to thrombocytopenia management.

3. A client at 32 weeks of gestation with preeclampsia is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because swelling in the hands is a potential sign of worsening preeclampsia, and the client should report this to their provider. Choice A is incorrect since aspirin is not recommended in preeclampsia. Choice C is incorrect as calcium intake is not directly related to preventing seizures in preeclampsia. Choice D is incorrect because protein restriction is not the standard management for preventing further kidney damage in preeclampsia.

4. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. What finding should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L is low and should be reported to the provider. Furosemide can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Low potassium levels can result in cardiac dysrhythmias, which is a serious concern in clients with heart failure. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not require immediate reporting. Sodium level of 140 mEq/L, heart rate of 82/min, and oxygen saturation of 95% are all acceptable findings.

5. What is the initial intervention for a patient experiencing an allergic reaction?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer antihistamines as the initial intervention for a patient experiencing an allergic reaction. Antihistamines work to block the effects of histamine, a substance released during an allergic reaction, helping to relieve symptoms such as itching, swelling, and hives. Corticosteroids (Choice B) are sometimes used in severe cases to reduce inflammation, but they are not the first-line treatment for an allergic reaction. Administering oxygen (Choice C) may be necessary if the patient is having difficulty breathing, but it is not the first intervention. IV fluids (Choice D) are typically given for conditions like dehydration or shock, not as the primary intervention for an allergic reaction.

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