Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Urine output of 30 mL/hr
• B. Pink-tinged urine
• C. Small blood clots in the urine
• D. Blood pressure of 114/78 mm Hg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The presence of small blood clots in the urine is an expected finding after a TURP due to the surgical manipulation of the prostate bed and the bladder. However, larger clots can indicate excessive bleeding and should be reported promptly. Urine output of 30 mL/hr is within the expected range for post-TURP clients, indicating adequate kidney perfusion. Pink-tinged urine is also normal after a TURP due to minor bleeding from the surgical site. A blood pressure of 114/78 mm Hg is within normal limits and does not require immediate reporting.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a urinary tract infection (UTI) and is prescribed ciprofloxacin. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for and report which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Tinnitus.
• B. Photosensitivity.
• C. Urinary frequency.
• D. Insomnia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Photosensitivity. Ciprofloxacin, an antibiotic commonly used to treat UTIs, can cause photosensitivity as an adverse effect. This reaction makes the skin more sensitive to sunlight, potentially leading to severe sunburns or skin damage. It is crucial for the client to be aware of this adverse effect to take precautions and report any signs of photosensitivity promptly. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because tinnitus, urinary frequency, and insomnia are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use. While urinary frequency might be a symptom of UTI, it is not an adverse effect of the medication itself.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. The nurse obtained a verbal prescription for restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Request a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours.
• B. Check the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 minutes.
• C. Obtain a prescription for restraint within 4 hours.
• D. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When caring for a client with bipolar disorder experiencing acute mania and having obtained a verbal prescription for restraints, the nurse must ensure to obtain a formal written prescription for restraint within 4 hours. This is crucial to maintain the safety and proper care of the client. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because renewing the prescription every 8 hours, checking pulse rate every 30 minutes, and documenting the client's condition every 15 minutes do not address the immediate need for a formal restraint prescription within 4 hours to manage the client's acute mania effectively.

4. What is the best way to monitor fluid balance in a patient with kidney disease?

• A. Monitor daily weight
• B. Monitor input and output
• C. Check for edema
• D. Check urine output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor daily weight. This method is the most accurate way to assess fluid balance in patients with kidney disease. Daily weight monitoring can detect even small changes in fluid balance, such as fluid retention or loss, which may not be evident through other methods. Monitoring input and output (choice B) is also important but may not provide a complete picture of fluid balance as it doesn't consider factors like insensible losses. Checking for edema (choice C) is a sign of fluid retention but may not always be present or may be difficult to assess accurately. Checking urine output (choice D) is important but may not reflect the overall fluid balance status of the patient.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following a cholecystectomy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent postoperative complications?

• A. Instruct the client to perform deep breathing and coughing exercises.
• B. Have the client wear sequential compression devices (SCDs).
• C. Place the client in a supine position with the head of the bed flat.
• D. Encourage the client to ambulate every 2 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Have the client wear sequential compression devices (SCDs). Following a cholecystectomy, the client is at risk for venous thromboembolism (VTE) due to reduced mobility and surgical stress. SCDs help prevent VTE by promoting venous return and reducing the risk of blood clots. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While deep breathing and coughing exercises are essential postoperatively, SCDs take precedence in preventing VTE. Placing the client in a supine position with the head of the bed flat can increase the risk of respiratory complications. Encouraging ambulation is important, but SCDs are a higher priority in this situation to prevent VTE.

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