ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet
1. What are the dietary recommendations for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?
- A. Reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
- B. Limit sodium intake to 1,500 mg/day
- C. Restrict protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day
- D. Increase protein intake
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. High phosphorus levels can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease as the kidneys may not be able to filter it effectively. While limiting sodium intake to 1,500 mg/day and restricting protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day are important in managing kidney disease, the primary concern for this patient population is to control phosphorus levels. Increasing protein intake is not recommended as it can put additional strain on the kidneys. Therefore, option A is the most appropriate recommendation in this scenario.
2. What should the nurse monitor for in a patient with hypokalemia?
- A. Monitor for muscle weakness
- B. Check deep tendon reflexes (DTRs)
- C. Monitor for seizures
- D. Monitor for bradycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for muscle weakness in a patient with hypokalemia. Hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels, can lead to muscle weakness due to its effects on neuromuscular function. Checking deep tendon reflexes (Choice B) is not typically associated with hypokalemia. Seizures (Choice C) are more commonly associated with low calcium levels rather than low potassium levels. Bradycardia (Choice D) is a symptom of hyperkalemia (high potassium levels) rather than hypokalemia.
3. What are the characteristics of a thrombotic stroke?
- A. Gradual onset over minutes to hours
- B. Numbness on one side of the body
- C. Associated with a loss of consciousness
- D. Associated with seizures and convulsions
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Thrombotic strokes typically have a gradual onset over minutes to hours as they result from a clot obstructing blood flow. Choice B, numbness on one side of the body, is more commonly associated with an ischemic stroke rather than specifically a thrombotic stroke. Choice C, loss of consciousness, is not a defining characteristic of a thrombotic stroke. Choice D, seizures and convulsions, are more commonly seen in hemorrhagic strokes rather than thrombotic strokes.
4. When planning care for a patient with diabetes insipidus, what should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Monitor serum albumin levels
- B. Avoid alcohol
- C. Teach the patient to increase fluids
- D. Increase exercise to reduce stress
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid alcohol.' Alcohol consumption can exacerbate dehydration in patients with diabetes insipidus, so it is essential to advise them to avoid alcohol. Monitoring serum albumin levels (choice A) is not directly related to managing diabetes insipidus. Teaching the patient to increase fluids (choice C) is not recommended as it can worsen the condition by further diluting the urine. Increasing exercise to reduce stress (choice D) is not a primary intervention for managing diabetes insipidus.
5. What should be monitored in a patient receiving insulin who is at risk for hypoglycemia?
- A. Monitor blood glucose levels
- B. Monitor for respiratory distress
- C. Monitor for hypertension
- D. Monitor for hyperkalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Question: In a patient receiving insulin who is at risk for hypoglycemia, monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial. This helps in preventing and identifying hypoglycemia promptly. Choice B, monitoring for respiratory distress, is not directly related to hypoglycemia caused by insulin. Choice C, monitoring for hypertension, is not typically associated with hypoglycemia. Choice D, monitoring for hyperkalemia, is not a common concern in patients receiving insulin who are at risk for hypoglycemia.
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