Nursing Elites

1. What is an escharotomy and when is it performed?

• A. A surgical incision to release pressure in burn injuries
• B. A procedure to remove dead tissue from wounds
• C. An incision to improve circulation in tight skin after burns
• D. A procedure to remove excess fluid from the chest

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An escharotomy is a surgical incision made to release pressure in a part of the body that has a deep burn and excessive swelling. This procedure is crucial in preventing further damage due to restricted blood flow and compromised circulation. Choice B is incorrect because it describes debridement, which is the removal of dead tissue from wounds. Choice C is incorrect as it does not specifically address the purpose of relieving pressure in burn injuries. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a procedure more related to thoracentesis, which is the removal of excess fluid from the chest, typically the pleural space.

2. Which lab value is a priority for a patient with HIV?

• A. CD4 T-cell count 180 cells/mm3
• B. Albumin levels below 3.5 g/dL
• C. Potassium levels below 3.5 mEq/L
• D. White blood cell count below 5000/mm3

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count of less than 180 cells/mm3 is a priority for a patient with HIV because it indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk for opportunistic infections. Monitoring CD4 levels helps in assessing the immune status and guiding treatment decisions in patients with HIV. Albumin levels (choice B) are important for assessing nutritional status but are not a direct indicator of immune function in HIV patients. Potassium levels (choice C) and white blood cell count (choice D) are also important, but the CD4 T-cell count is specifically crucial for evaluating the immune function in individuals with HIV.

3. What dietary instructions should be provided for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

• A. Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
• B. Increase protein intake to 1g/kg/day
• C. Increase sodium intake
• D. Avoid potassium-rich foods

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease should limit phosphorus intake to manage their condition. Excessive phosphorus can lead to mineral and bone disorders in patients with kidney disease. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing protein intake is not recommended as it can burden the kidneys. Increasing sodium intake is usually discouraged due to its association with hypertension and fluid retention in kidney disease. Avoiding potassium-rich foods is more relevant in advanced kidney disease stages when potassium levels are high, not in pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease.

4. What are the expected findings in a patient experiencing hypokalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves on an ECG
• B. Elevated ST segments
• C. Prominent U waves
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves on an ECG. Hypokalemia is characterized by flattened T waves on an ECG, which is an early indicator of low potassium levels. Elevated ST segments (Choice B) are associated with conditions like myocardial infarction, not hypokalemia. Prominent U waves (Choice C) are typically seen in hypokalemia, but flattened T waves are more specific. Bradycardia (Choice D) can be a manifestation of severe hypokalemia but is not as specific as flattened T waves on an ECG.

5. What ECG changes are seen with hyperkalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. Elevated ST segments
• C. Prominent U waves
• D. Widened QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early ECG sign of hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, leading to changes such as peaked T waves, prolonged PR interval, widened QRS complex, and ultimately sine wave pattern. Elevated ST segments, prominent U waves, and widened QRS complex are not typically associated with hyperkalemia, making choices B, C, and D incorrect.

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