a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition tpn which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a possible

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a possible complication of TPN administration?

A. Pitting edema of bilateral lower extremities
B. Hypoactive bowel sounds in all four quadrants
C. Weight is the same as the day before
D. Bilateral posterior lung sounds are diminished

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pitting edema of bilateral lower extremities. Pitting edema can indicate fluid overload, which is a potential complication of TPN administration. Choice B, hypoactive bowel sounds, is more indicative of a gastrointestinal issue rather than a complication of TPN. Choice C, weight remaining the same, is expected to remain stable with proper TPN administration. Choice D, diminished lung sounds, is not directly related to TPN administration and is more suggestive of a respiratory issue.

2. What is the priority action for a patient experiencing chest pain from acute coronary syndrome?

A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
B. Administer aspirin
C. Obtain IV access
D. Check cardiac enzymes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin. This medication helps to dilate the blood vessels, reduce the workload on the heart, and improve blood flow to the heart muscle, providing immediate relief for chest pain in acute coronary syndrome. Administering aspirin is also crucial in the early management of acute coronary syndrome to prevent further clot formation. However, in terms of immediate symptom relief, nitroglycerin takes precedence over aspirin. Obtaining IV access is important for administering medications and fluids but is not the priority over providing immediate relief for chest pain. Checking cardiac enzymes is essential for diagnosing acute coronary syndrome but is not the immediate priority when a patient is experiencing chest pain.

3. What are the early signs of increased intracranial pressure (IICP)?

A. Restlessness, irritability, and confusion
B. Sudden onset of seizures
C. Decreased heart rate and pupillary response
D. Loss of consciousness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Restlessness, irritability, and confusion are early signs of increased intracranial pressure (IICP). These signs indicate that the brain is starting to experience pressure, often due to conditions such as trauma, tumors, or hemorrhage. Sudden onset of seizures (choice B) is not typically an early sign of IICP but can occur later as the pressure increases. Decreased heart rate and pupillary response (choice C) are more indicative of late-stage IICP as the brainstem becomes compromised. Loss of consciousness (choice D) is a late sign of IICP when the pressure has significantly increased and is causing significant brain dysfunction.

4. What teaching should be provided to a patient following surgical removal of a cataract?

A. Avoid NSAIDs
B. Wear dark glasses while outdoors
C. Creamy white drainage is normal
D. Reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct teaching to provide to a patient following surgical removal of a cataract is to avoid NSAIDs. NSAIDs can increase the risk of bleeding at the surgical site, so it is important to steer clear of them. Choice B, wearing dark glasses while outdoors, may be recommended post-surgery to protect the eyes from bright light, but it is not the priority teaching in this case. Choice C, stating that creamy white drainage is normal, is not accurate as drainage from the eye should be monitored and reported. Choice D, reducing phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day, is unrelated to post-cataract surgery care and is not a necessary teaching point.

5. What lab value should be prioritized in a patient with HIV?

A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
B. Hemoglobin levels
C. Serum albumin levels
D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. In a patient with HIV, monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial as it reflects the status of the immune system. A CD4 T-cell count below 200 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and risk of opportunistic infections. Hemoglobin levels (choice B) are important for assessing anemia but do not directly reflect the immune status in HIV patients. Serum albumin levels (choice C) are indicators of nutritional status and inflammation, not specific to HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice D) may fluctuate due to various conditions and is not as specific as the CD4 T-cell count in assessing HIV progression.