ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet
1. The nurse misread a patient's glucose as 210 mg/dL instead of 120 mg/dL and administered the insulin dose for a reading over 200 mg/dL. What is the priority action?
- A. Administer glucose IV
- B. Monitor for hyperglycemia
- C. Monitor for hypoglycemia
- D. Document the incident
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority action is to monitor the patient for signs of hypoglycemia as the nurse administered excess insulin due to misreading the glucose level. Administering glucose IV (Choice A) is not the immediate priority when dealing with hypoglycemia. Monitoring for hyperglycemia (Choice B) is not the correct action as the insulin was administered for a higher glucose reading. Documenting the incident (Choice D) is important but not the priority when the patient's safety is at risk due to possible hypoglycemia.
2. What ECG changes are expected in hypokalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves on ECG
- B. Prominent U waves on ECG
- C. Widened QRS complexes on ECG
- D. ST elevation on ECG
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In hypokalemia, flattened T waves are a common ECG finding due to the decreased extracellular potassium affecting repolarization. Prominent U waves are typically seen in hypokalemia as well, but flattened T waves are the more specific and early ECG change. Widened QRS complexes are associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. ST elevation is often seen in conditions like myocardial infarction, pericarditis, or early repolarization syndrome, not specifically in hypokalemia.
3. What should a healthcare provider monitor for in a patient with HIV and a CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3?
- A. Monitor for signs of infection
- B. Monitor for anemia
- C. Monitor for dehydration
- D. Monitor for bleeding
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise in a patient with HIV. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial because the patient is at high risk of developing opportunistic infections. Anemia (choice B), dehydration (choice C), and bleeding (choice D) are not directly associated with a low CD4 T-cell count in patients with HIV.
4. A patient who experienced an acute episode of gastritis should avoid which type of foods?
- A. Avoid foods high in potassium
- B. Avoid foods high in sodium
- C. Increase exercise to reduce stress
- D. Drink milk as a snack
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid foods high in potassium. Potassium-rich foods can exacerbate gastritis symptoms by irritating the stomach lining. Sodium (choice B) is not directly related to gastritis symptoms. Increasing exercise (choice C) can be beneficial for overall health but may not directly impact gastritis. Drinking milk (choice D) can provide temporary relief for some individuals with gastritis due to its coating effect, but it is not a universal recommendation as it can worsen symptoms in some cases.
5. What intervention should the nurse take for a patient experiencing delayed wound healing?
- A. Monitor serum albumin levels
- B. Apply a dry dressing
- C. Administer antibiotics
- D. Change the wound dressing every 8 hours
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring serum albumin levels is crucial for patients with delayed wound healing. Low albumin levels indicate a lack of protein, which can impair the healing process and increase the risk of infection. By monitoring serum albumin levels, the nurse can assess the patient's nutritional status and make necessary interventions to promote wound healing. Applying a dry dressing (Choice B) may be appropriate depending on the wound characteristics, but it does not address the underlying cause of delayed healing. Administering antibiotics (Choice C) is not the first-line intervention for delayed wound healing unless there is an active infection present. Changing the wound dressing every 8 hours (Choice D) may lead to excessive disruption of the wound bed and hinder the healing process.
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