the nurse misread a patients glucose as 210 mgdl instead of 120 mgdl and administered the insulin dose for a reading over 200 mgdl what is the priorit
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ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet

1. The nurse misread a patient's glucose as 210 mg/dL instead of 120 mg/dL and administered the insulin dose for a reading over 200 mg/dL. What is the priority action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority action is to monitor the patient for signs of hypoglycemia as the nurse administered excess insulin due to misreading the glucose level. Administering glucose IV (Choice A) is not the immediate priority when dealing with hypoglycemia. Monitoring for hyperglycemia (Choice B) is not the correct action as the insulin was administered for a higher glucose reading. Documenting the incident (Choice D) is important but not the priority when the patient's safety is at risk due to possible hypoglycemia.

2. A nurse is teaching a client who has hypertension about dietary modifications to help control blood pressure. Which of the following food choices should the nurse recommend as the best choice for the client to include in their diet?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a client with hypertension, a low sodium diet is recommended to help control blood pressure. Among the food choices provided, the best option is 3 oz of chicken breast. Chicken breast is lean protein with lower sodium content compared to other choices. It is a healthier option for managing hypertension. Reconstituted dry onion soup (Choice A) and canned baked beans (Choice D) typically contain higher amounts of sodium, which can be detrimental for blood pressure management. Lean cured ham (Choice B) also tends to have a higher sodium content, making it less suitable for a client with hypertension.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the client's plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering diuretics is a crucial intervention for a client with acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis as it helps reduce edema by increasing urine output and managing symptoms of glomerulonephritis. Encouraging a high-protein diet (Choice A) is not recommended in this case because it can put additional stress on the kidneys. Increasing fluid intake (Choice B) may worsen edema in these clients. Weighing the client twice a week (Choice D) is important for monitoring fluid balance but is not as immediate and directly beneficial as administering diuretics.

4. What should a healthcare provider monitor for in a patient with HIV and a CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise in a patient with HIV. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial because the patient is at high risk of developing opportunistic infections. Anemia (choice B), dehydration (choice C), and bleeding (choice D) are not directly associated with a low CD4 T-cell count in patients with HIV.

5. What should a healthcare professional monitor for in a patient with compartment syndrome?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness are classic signs of compartment syndrome. In this condition, increased pressure within a muscle compartment impairs blood flow, leading to severe pain that is not relieved by usual measures, pallor from decreased blood flow, and pulselessness due to compromised circulation. These signs indicate a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention. Localized redness and swelling (Choice B) are more characteristic of inflammation or infection rather than compartment syndrome. Fever and signs of infection (Choice C) are not typical manifestations of compartment syndrome. Loss of deep tendon reflexes (Choice D) is associated with conditions affecting the nervous system, not compartment syndrome.

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