Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is completing a dietary assessment for a client who is Jewish and observes kosher dietary practices. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse expect to find?

• A. Leavened bread may be eaten during Passover.
• B. Shellfish is commonly consumed in the diet.
• C. Meat and dairy products are eaten separately.
• D. Fasting from meat occurs during Hanukkah.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Kosher dietary laws require the separation of meat and dairy products. Choice A is incorrect because leavened bread is not eaten during Passover in Jewish dietary practices. Choice B is incorrect as shellfish is not considered kosher and is not consumed in Jewish dietary practices. Choice D is incorrect as fasting from meat does not occur during Hanukkah.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following a thoracotomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Chest tube drainage of 60 mL/hr
• B. Oxygen saturation of 95%
• C. Chest tube drainage of 120 mL/hr
• D. Heart rate of 88/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Chest tube drainage of more than 100 mL/hr may indicate active bleeding, which is a serious complication post-thoracotomy surgery. This finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately for further evaluation and intervention. Choices A, B, and D are within normal limits for a client 2 hours post-thoracotomy and do not require immediate reporting. Oxygen saturation of 95% is acceptable, and a heart rate of 88/min is within the normal range for an adult.

3. What is the most critical lab value to monitor for a patient on heparin therapy?

• A. Monitor aPTT levels
• B. Monitor platelet count
• C. Monitor INR levels
• D. Monitor sodium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT levels. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial for assessing the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin, as it reflects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the patient is within the therapeutic range of heparin, minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. Platelet count (choice B) is important to assess for potential heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but is not the primary lab value to monitor during heparin therapy. INR levels (choice C) are monitored in patients on warfarin therapy, not heparin. Sodium levels (choice D) are not directly related to heparin therapy monitoring.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a nasogastric tube for enteral feedings. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include to prevent aspiration?

• A. Flush the tube with 30 mL of sterile water before each feeding.
• B. Check for gastric residuals every 4 hours.
• C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings.
• D. Place the client in the left lateral position during feedings.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings is the correct intervention to prevent aspiration in clients with a nasogastric tube. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and subsequent aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs. Flushing the tube with water before feedings (Choice A) is not necessary for preventing aspiration. Checking for gastric residuals (Choice B) helps monitor feeding tolerance but does not directly prevent aspiration. Placing the client in the left lateral position (Choice D) is not specifically indicated for preventing aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes the loss of potassium in the urine, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is the opposite of the expected electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is not a common side effect of furosemide.

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