ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient for dehydration?
- A. Check for skin turgor
- B. Monitor blood pressure
- C. Check for dry mucous membranes
- D. Monitor urine output
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Checking for skin turgor is a reliable method to assess dehydration in patients. Skin turgor refers to the skin's elasticity and hydration status. When a healthcare professional gently pinches the skin on the back of the patient's hand or forearm, dehydration is indicated by the skin not snapping back immediately. Monitoring blood pressure (choice B) is important but is more indicative of cardiovascular status rather than dehydration specifically. Checking for dry mucous membranes (choice C) can be a sign of dehydration, but skin turgor is a more direct assessment. Monitoring urine output (choice D) is also essential but may not provide immediate feedback on hydration status as skin turgor does.
2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and is scheduled for a nonstress test. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. The test will last about 30 minutes.
- B. You should drink a full glass of water prior to the test.
- C. You will need to have your bladder full for this test.
- D. This test measures how well your baby's heart responds to movement.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A nonstress test measures the fetal heart's response to movement, helping to assess fetal well-being. Choice A is incorrect as the duration of the test can vary, and it is not always precisely 30 minutes. Choice B is incorrect as drinking water is not necessary for a nonstress test. Choice C is incorrect as having a full bladder is not required for this test.
3. A healthcare professional is reviewing admission prescriptions for a group of clients. Which of the following prescriptions should the healthcare professional identify as complete?
- A. Furosemide 20 mg BID.
- B. Aspirin 1 tablet daily.
- C. Nitroglycerin transdermal patch.
- D. Metoprolol 5 mg IV now.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it provides the medication (Metoprolol), dosage (5 mg), route of administration (IV), and timing (now), making it a complete prescription. Choices A, B, and C lack either the route of administration or timing, making them incomplete prescriptions. For choice A, it lacks the route of administration, and for choices B and C, they lack the timing of administration.
4. A nurse is planning care for a client who practices Orthodox Judaism and is observing the Passover holiday. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Provide chicken with cream sauce.
- B. Avoid serving fish with fins and scales.
- C. Provide unleavened bread.
- D. Avoid serving foods containing lamb.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During the Passover holiday, individuals practicing Orthodox Judaism follow dietary restrictions that include avoiding leavened bread. Providing unleavened bread aligns with these restrictions and ensures the client's observance of the holiday. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because serving chicken with cream sauce, avoiding fish with fins and scales, and avoiding foods containing lamb are not specific dietary requirements related to observing Passover in Orthodox Judaism.
5. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients receiving furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance necessitates close monitoring to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypercalcemia is not a common side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia is more commonly associated with other medications like thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia is the opposite electrolyte imbalance and is not typically seen with furosemide use.
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