Nursing Elites

1. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient for dehydration?

• A. Check for skin turgor
• B. Monitor blood pressure
• C. Check for dry mucous membranes
• D. Monitor urine output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Checking for skin turgor is a reliable method to assess dehydration in patients. Skin turgor refers to the skin's elasticity and hydration status. When a healthcare professional gently pinches the skin on the back of the patient's hand or forearm, dehydration is indicated by the skin not snapping back immediately. Monitoring blood pressure (choice B) is important but is more indicative of cardiovascular status rather than dehydration specifically. Checking for dry mucous membranes (choice C) can be a sign of dehydration, but skin turgor is a more direct assessment. Monitoring urine output (choice D) is also essential but may not provide immediate feedback on hydration status as skin turgor does.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin to augment labor. The client's contractions are occurring every 2 minutes with a duration of 90 seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Increase the oxytocin infusion.
• B. Maintain the oxytocin infusion.
• C. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion.
• D. Provide reassurance to the client.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion. With contractions occurring every 2 minutes and lasting 90 seconds, this pattern indicates hyperstimulation, which can be harmful to the fetus. Discontinuing the oxytocin infusion is essential to prevent further harm. Increasing the oxytocin infusion would exacerbate the situation, maintaining it would continue the risk, and providing reassurance to the client, although important, does not address the need for immediate action to ensure the safety of the fetus.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving heparin to treat deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. aPTT of 38 seconds
• B. Hemoglobin of 15 g/dL
• C. Platelet count of 80,000/mm3
• D. INR of 1.0

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A platelet count of 80,000/mm3 is below the normal range and should be reported to the provider due to the risk of bleeding. Heparin can cause a rare but serious side effect known as heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, leading to a decrease in platelet count and an increased risk of bleeding. The aPTT of 38 seconds, hemoglobin of 15 g/dL, and an INR of 1.0 are within normal ranges and not directly concerning in this scenario. Platelet count is crucial to monitor in clients receiving heparin therapy to ensure adequate clotting function and prevent bleeding complications.

4. A client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will eat a bedtime snack if my blood sugar is below 200 mg/dL.
• B. I will eat more sugar-free candy to help control my blood sugar.
• C. I will check my blood sugar every morning before breakfast.
• D. I will avoid physical activity if my blood sugar is below 100 mg/dL.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because checking blood sugar levels every morning before breakfast is a crucial aspect of managing diabetes effectively. This practice helps individuals monitor their blood sugar levels regularly and adjust their treatment plan as needed. Option A is incorrect as consuming a bedtime snack based on blood sugar levels alone may not be an appropriate approach to managing diabetes. Option B is incorrect as relying on more sugar-free candy does not address the overall dietary management of blood sugar levels. Option D is incorrect as avoiding physical activity when blood sugar is below 100 mg/dL can hinder diabetes management, as exercise is generally beneficial for controlling blood sugar levels.

5. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is prescribed home oxygen. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. Check your oxygen equipment daily for proper function.
• B. Increase the oxygen flow rate if you feel short of breath.
• C. Store your oxygen tanks lying flat on the floor.
• D. It is safe to smoke as long as you are more than 10 feet from the oxygen source.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement for the nurse to make is to advise the client to check the oxygen equipment daily for proper function. This is crucial to ensure the client's home oxygen therapy is working effectively and safely. Choice B is incorrect because adjusting the oxygen flow rate without healthcare provider guidance can be dangerous. Choice C is incorrect as oxygen tanks should be stored upright, not lying flat. Choice D is incorrect and unsafe advice, as smoking near an oxygen source can lead to a fire hazard.

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