ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet
1. A nurse is caring for an infant who has coarctation of the aorta. Which of the following should the nurse identify as an expected finding?
- A. Weak femoral pulses.
- B. Frequent nosebleeds.
- C. Upper extremity hypotension.
- D. Increased intracranial pressure.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Weak femoral pulses are an expected finding in an infant with coarctation of the aorta. The narrowing of the aorta leads to decreased blood flow to the lower extremities, resulting in weak or absent femoral pulses. Frequent nosebleeds (Choice B) are not typically associated with coarctation of the aorta. Upper extremity hypotension (Choice C) is not a common finding in coarctation of the aorta; instead, blood pressure is usually elevated in the upper extremities. Increased intracranial pressure (Choice D) is not directly related to coarctation of the aorta.
2. A healthcare provider is assisting with mass casualty triage following an explosion at a local factory. Which of the following clients should the healthcare provider identify as the priority?
- A. A client who has massive head trauma
- B. A client who has full-thickness burns to the face and trunk
- C. A client with indications of hypovolemic shock
- D. A client with an open fracture of the lower extremity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a mass casualty situation, a client with hypovolemic shock should be the priority as they require immediate intervention to restore fluid volume and prevent further deterioration. Hypovolemic shock can lead to organ failure and death if not addressed promptly. While clients with other severe conditions like massive head trauma, full-thickness burns, or an open fracture also need urgent care, hypovolemic shock directly threatens the client's life due to inadequate circulating blood volume. Therefore, stabilizing the client with indications of hypovolemic shock takes precedence over others in this scenario.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving enteral nutrition via a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to reduce the risk of aspiration?
- A. Position the client supine during feedings.
- B. Administer the feedings over 10 minutes.
- C. Elevate the head of the bed during feedings.
- D. Place the client in a lateral position after feedings.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action to reduce the risk of aspiration in clients receiving enteral feedings is to elevate the head of the bed during feedings. This position helps prevent regurgitation and aspiration of the feeding. Positioning the client supine (Choice A) increases the risk of aspiration as it promotes reflux. Administering feedings over 10 minutes (Choice B) does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Placing the client in a lateral position after feedings (Choice D) does not address the risk of aspiration during the feeding process.
4. A client in active labor has ruptured membranes. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Apply a fetal heart rate monitor.
- B. Initiate fundal massage.
- C. Administer oxytocin IV.
- D. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client in active labor has ruptured membranes, the priority action for the nurse is to apply a fetal heart rate monitor. This is crucial for continuous monitoring of the baby's heart rate and ensuring fetal well-being. Initiating fundal massage may be indicated for uterine atony after delivery, not for ruptured membranes during labor. Administering oxytocin IV could be appropriate in some cases to augment labor, but it is not the immediate priority after ruptured membranes. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not necessary solely based on ruptured membranes; it may be indicated for specific situations like epidural anesthesia where the client cannot void.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving warfarin therapy. Which of the following laboratory results indicates the need for an increase in the dose of warfarin?
- A. PT 28 seconds
- B. INR 1.2
- C. aPTT 40 seconds
- D. Fibrinogen 350 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An INR of 1.2 is below the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating inadequate anticoagulation. Therefore, the client would require an increase in the dose of warfarin to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. Choices A, C, and D are not indicative of the need for a dose increase in warfarin therapy. PT of 28 seconds is within the therapeutic range, aPTT of 40 seconds is also within the normal range, and fibrinogen level of 350 mg/dL does not provide information about the anticoagulant effect of warfarin.
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