ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a new prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following findings is a priority for the nurse to report?
- A. Platelet count of 200,000/mm³
- B. Hemoglobin level of 15 g/dL
- C. Respiratory rate of 22/min
- D. Dark, tarry stools
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Dark, tarry stools indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, which is a serious side effect of enoxaparin that requires immediate medical attention. Reporting this finding promptly is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and are not directly related to the adverse effects of enoxaparin, so they do not take precedence over the urgent concern of gastrointestinal bleeding.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who has Guillain-Barré syndrome. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Increased urine output.
- B. Hyperactive reflexes.
- C. Hypoactive bowel sounds.
- D. Facial weakness.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Facial weakness is a common finding in clients with Guillain-Barré syndrome due to muscle weakness. While increased urine output is not typically associated with Guillain-Barré syndrome, hyperactive reflexes are more indicative of conditions like hyperthyroidism or spinal cord injury. Hypoactive bowel sounds are not a classic finding in Guillain-Barré syndrome, making it an incorrect choice.
3. A client at risk for osteoporosis is being taught by a nurse about dietary measures to increase calcium intake. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
- A. Carrots
- B. Cottage cheese
- C. Bananas
- D. Broccoli
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Broccoli. Broccoli is high in calcium, making it a suitable recommendation for clients at risk for osteoporosis. Carrots, Cottage cheese, and Bananas are not significant sources of calcium compared to broccoli, and therefore, they are not the best choices to increase calcium intake.
4. A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?
- A. A client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving monitoring.
- B. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea.
- C. A client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities.
- D. A client who has diabetes and a hemoglobin A1C of 6.8%.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a new onset of tachypnea can indicate a respiratory complication, which requires immediate assessment. Sinus arrhythmia, epidural analgesia with weakness, and a hemoglobin A1C level of 6.8% in a client with diabetes do not pose immediate life-threatening concerns that require urgent assessment compared to the potential respiratory issues associated with tachypnea.
5. Which of the following is the most concerning electrolyte imbalance for a patient on furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium depletion in the body, causing hypokalemia. This is a significant concern as low potassium levels can result in cardiac arrhythmias and other serious complications. Hyperkalemia (Choice B) is unlikely to occur as a result of furosemide use. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly associated with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not typically linked to furosemide use.
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