Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Respiratory rate of 20/min
• B. Oxygen saturation of 93%
• C. Pain level of 2 on a scale of 0 to 10
• D. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a blood pressure drop or other signs of morphine overdose should be reported, especially when using a PCA pump. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits and do not indicate an immediate concern related to morphine administration.

2. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient for dehydration?

• A. Check for skin turgor
• B. Monitor blood pressure
• C. Check for dry mucous membranes
• D. Monitor urine output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Checking for skin turgor is a reliable method to assess dehydration in patients. Skin turgor refers to the skin's elasticity and hydration status. When a healthcare professional gently pinches the skin on the back of the patient's hand or forearm, dehydration is indicated by the skin not snapping back immediately. Monitoring blood pressure (choice B) is important but is more indicative of cardiovascular status rather than dehydration specifically. Checking for dry mucous membranes (choice C) can be a sign of dehydration, but skin turgor is a more direct assessment. Monitoring urine output (choice D) is also essential but may not provide immediate feedback on hydration status as skin turgor does.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Serum sodium.
• B. Serum glucose.
• C. Serum potassium.
• D. Serum calcium.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, meaning it can lead to potassium loss in the body. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to evaluate the effectiveness of furosemide and prevent hypokalemia. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not directly affect sodium, glucose, or calcium levels in the same way it impacts potassium levels.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Serum potassium 4.5 mEq/L
• B. Serum calcium 9.2 mg/dL
• C. Serum creatinine 2.5 mg/dL
• D. Serum albumin 3.5 g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated serum creatinine levels indicate impaired kidney function. As kidney disease progresses, the kidneys are less able to filter waste products, leading to an increase in creatinine levels. Therefore, a high serum creatinine level of 2.5 mg/dL should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not directly signify worsening kidney function in this context.

5. A parent is being taught by a nurse how to prevent sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Which statement by the parent indicates an understanding of how to place the infant in the crib at bedtime?

• A. Place the infant on their stomach to sleep.
• B. Place the infant on their side to sleep.
• C. Place the infant on their back to sleep.
• D. Allow the infant to sleep with a pacifier.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Place the infant on their back to sleep.' This statement indicates an understanding of the recommended sleep position to reduce the risk of SIDS. Placing infants on their back is the safest sleep position according to guidelines to prevent SIDS. Choices A and B are incorrect as placing the infant on their stomach or side increases the risk of SIDS. While allowing the infant to sleep with a pacifier can also reduce the risk of SIDS, the most crucial step is placing the infant on their back for sleep.

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