Nursing Elites

1. A hospitalized client has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) greater than 1.5 times the expected reference range. Which of the following blood products should be prepared for transfusion?

• A. Whole blood
• B. Platelets
• C. Fresh frozen plasma
• D. Packed red blood cells

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Fresh frozen plasma is the appropriate blood product for a client with an elevated aPTT as it contains various coagulation factors that can help correct coagulopathies and prevent bleeding. Elevated aPTT indicates a deficiency in specific clotting factors, and fresh frozen plasma is rich in these factors. Whole blood, platelets, and packed red blood cells do not contain the necessary coagulation factors to correct an elevated aPTT, so they are not indicated in this situation.

2. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health care record of a client who is asking about conjugated equine estrogens. The provider should inform the client this medication is contraindicated in which of the following conditions?

• A. Atrophic vaginitis
• B. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
• C. Osteoporosis
• D. Thrombophlebitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Conjugated equine estrogens are contraindicated in clients with a history of thrombophlebitis due to the increased risk of thrombotic events associated with estrogen use. Thrombophlebitis is characterized by inflammation of a vein with the formation of a clot, and estrogen can further exacerbate this condition, leading to serious complications. Choices A, B, and C are not contraindications for conjugated equine estrogens. Atrophic vaginitis and osteoporosis are conditions where estrogen therapy may actually be indicated. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding is another condition where estrogen therapy can be used to help regulate menstrual bleeding.

3. What is the expected pharmacological action of propranolol?

• A. Block stimulation of beta1 receptors
• B. Alter water and electrolyte transport in the large intestine
• C. Block stimulation of beta2 receptors
• D. Both A and C are correct

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Propranolol exerts its pharmacological action by blocking stimulation of both beta1 and beta2 receptors. By doing so, it leads to decreased heart rate and blood pressure. Therefore, both options A and C are correct as propranolol affects both types of beta receptors. Choice B is incorrect as propranolol does not alter water and electrolyte transport in the large intestine.

4. A client has a new prescription for Ondansetron. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication 30 minutes before chemotherapy.
• B. Expect your urine to turn orange.
• C. Increase your intake of high-fiber foods.
• D. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Take the medication 30 minutes before chemotherapy.' Ondansetron, an antiemetic, should be taken before chemotherapy to prevent nausea and vomiting. Taking it 30 minutes before chemotherapy ensures the medication is most effective in controlling chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Option B is unrelated to Ondansetron, option C is not necessary for this medication, and option D does not interact with Ondansetron but is relevant for other medications.

5. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an Opioid agonist to a client who has acute pain. Which of the following complications should the healthcare provider monitor?

• A. Urinary retention
• B. Tachypnea
• C. Hypertension
• D. Irritating cough

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is urinary retention. Opioid agonists like morphine can suppress the sensation of a full bladder, leading to urinary retention. Monitoring for this complication is crucial to prevent bladder distention and related issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), and irritating cough are not typically associated with opioid agonist administration for pain management.

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