Nursing Elites

1. A client is being discharged with a new prescription for furosemide 40 mg PO daily. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Avoid foods rich in potassium.
• B. Take the medication with food.
• C. Weigh yourself daily.
• D. Stand up slowly to minimize orthostatic hypotension.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Stand up slowly to minimize orthostatic hypotension.' Clients prescribed furosemide are at risk for orthostatic hypotension, a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. Advising the client to stand up slowly can help prevent this complication. Instructing the client to avoid rapid position changes decreases the likelihood of dizziness or fainting episodes. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because furosemide does not require avoiding potassium-rich foods, taking the medication with food, or daily weighing as specific instructions.

2. When providing teaching to a client with a prescription for Phenytoin, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. Increase your intake of calcium-rich foods.
• C. Brush and floss your teeth regularly.
• D. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Brush and floss your teeth regularly.' Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, a side effect that affects the gums. It is crucial for the client to maintain good oral hygiene to prevent oral health complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While the timing of medication administration and dietary considerations are important, they are not directly related to preventing the specific side effect of gingival hyperplasia caused by Phenytoin.

3. A client has a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take furosemide in the morning.
• B. Eat a diet high in potassium.
• C. Avoid foods that are high in magnesium.
• D. Limit your fluid intake to 1 liter per day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Eat a diet high in potassium.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels). Instructing the client to eat a diet high in potassium can help counteract the potassium-wasting effect of furosemide and prevent hypokalemia. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide can be taken at different times of the day based on individual needs. Choice C is incorrect as furosemide does not directly interact with magnesium levels. Choice D is incorrect because while fluid intake may need to be monitored, a specific limit of 1 liter per day is not a general instruction for all clients taking furosemide.

4. A client in an acute care facility is receiving IV Nitroprusside for hypertensive crisis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse reactions to this medication?

• A. Intestinal ileus
• B. Neutropenia
• C. Delirium
• D. Hyperthermia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Delirium. When IV nitroprusside is administered at high dosages, it can lead to thiocyanate toxicity, resulting in mental status changes such as delirium. Monitoring thiocyanate levels during therapy is crucial to ensure they remain below 10 mg/dL to prevent this adverse reaction. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because nitroprusside does not typically cause intestinal ileus, neutropenia, or hyperthermia as adverse reactions.

5. A client is prescribed Atorvastatin. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored to assess for potential adverse effects?

• A. Blood glucose
• B. Creatine kinase
• C. Hemoglobin
• D. Sodium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Creatine kinase should be monitored in clients taking Atorvastatin as it can indicate muscle damage, a serious adverse effect of statins. Elevated creatine kinase levels may suggest myopathy or rhabdomyolysis, which are potential complications of statin therapy.

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