a nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for furosemide 40 mg po daily which of the following instructions s
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ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A client is being discharged with a new prescription for furosemide 40 mg PO daily. Which of the following instructions should be included?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Stand up slowly to minimize orthostatic hypotension.' Clients prescribed furosemide are at risk for orthostatic hypotension, a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. Advising the client to stand up slowly can help prevent this complication. Instructing the client to avoid rapid position changes decreases the likelihood of dizziness or fainting episodes. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because furosemide does not require avoiding potassium-rich foods, taking the medication with food, or daily weighing as specific instructions.

2. A client is starting to take amitriptyline. The healthcare provider should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Urinary retention. Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, can cause relaxation of the bladder sphincter muscles, leading to urinary retention. Monitoring for urinary retention is crucial as it is a common anticholinergic effect associated with this medication. Diarrhea (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of amitriptyline. Bradycardia (choice C) is more commonly associated with beta-blockers rather than tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline. Dry cough (choice D) is not a typical adverse effect of amitriptyline.

3. A client is receiving imatinib. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Edema. The nurse should monitor the client for edema when receiving imatinib. Imatinib, a tyrosine kinase inhibitor, can lead to fluid retention and edema as a common adverse effect. This can manifest as swelling in various parts of the body, indicating the need for close monitoring by the nurse to prevent complications related to fluid overload. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, dry mouth, and urinary retention are not typically associated with imatinib use. Therefore, they are not the priority adverse effects to monitor in a client receiving this medication.

4. When teaching parents about a child newly prescribed Desipramine, the nurse should instruct them that which of the following adverse effects is the priority to report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority adverse effect to report when a child is prescribed Desipramine is suicidal thoughts. Desipramine can increase the risk of suicidal thoughts and behaviors. It is crucial for parents to monitor the child for any signs of worsening depression or thoughts of self-harm and report them promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent any harm to the child. Options A, C, and D are potential side effects of Desipramine but are not as urgent or life-threatening as suicidal thoughts, which require immediate intervention to ensure the safety of the child.

5. A hospitalized client receiving IV heparin for a deep-vein thrombosis begins vomiting blood. After the heparin has been stopped, which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing a serious complication of heparin therapy, likely due to heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. Protamine is the antidote for heparin and can reverse its anticoagulant effects. It is essential to administer protamine promptly to counteract the effects of heparin and manage the bleeding. Vitamin K1 is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, not heparin. Atropine is used to treat bradycardia or some types of poisoning. Calcium gluconate is used to manage hyperkalemia or calcium channel blocker toxicity, not to reverse heparin's effects.

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