Nursing Elites

1. A client with heart failure is experiencing pulmonary edema. Which intervention should be prioritized?

• A. Administer diuretics to reduce fluid overload.
• B. Position the client in high-Fowler's position.
• C. Administer oxygen therapy to improve oxygenation.
• D. Restrict fluid intake to prevent further fluid overload.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client experiencing pulmonary edema due to heart failure, the priority intervention is to administer oxygen therapy to improve oxygenation. This helps in increasing the oxygen levels in the blood, thereby improving tissue perfusion and reducing the workload on the heart. Positioning the client in high-Fowler's position can also aid in improving oxygenation, but administering oxygen therapy directly addresses the immediate need for increased oxygen levels. Administering diuretics to reduce fluid overload and restricting fluid intake are important interventions in heart failure management, but in the acute situation of pulmonary edema, oxygen therapy takes precedence to ensure adequate oxygen supply to vital organs.

2. Which of the following hormones do the kidneys secrete to increase red blood cell production?

• A. Erythropoietin
• B. Insulin and glycogen
• C. Testosterone
• D. Thyroid stimulating hormone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Erythropoietin. The kidneys produce erythropoietin to stimulate the production of red blood cells. Insulin and glycogen are not hormones secreted by the kidneys; insulin is produced by the pancreas, and glycogen is a stored form of glucose. Testosterone is a hormone primarily produced by the testes in males and to a lesser extent in females. Thyroid stimulating hormone is produced by the pituitary gland to regulate thyroid function, not red blood cell production.

3. Which patient is most likely to be diagnosed with complex regional pain syndrome II (CRPS II)?

• A. A patient who has experienced a spinal cord injury and reports severe, burning pain in his legs.
• B. A patient who reports severe pain in her hand following a surgery for carpal tunnel syndrome.
• C. A patient who develops pain in his foot following a fracture and immobilization with a cast.
• D. A patient who experiences chronic pain and swelling in his arm following a brachial plexus injury.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Complex regional pain syndrome II (CRPS II) typically occurs after an injury to a peripheral nerve. In this case, a brachial plexus injury involves damage to the nerves that control muscles in the arm and hand, leading to chronic pain and swelling. Choices A, B, and C describe pain related to other conditions such as spinal cord injury, carpal tunnel surgery, and fracture immobilization, which are not typically associated with CRPS II.

4. A patient with an 18 pack per year history presents to a family practice clinic complaining of painless hoarseness and inability to clear mucus. A biopsy of respiratory tract cells is taken and shows that these cells have been replaced by less mature squamous epithelium cells. The nurse knows this type of change is referred to as:

• A. Dysplasia
• B. Metaplasia
• C. Hyperplasia
• D. Coagulation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Metaplasia is the replacement of one type of cell with another, which can occur in response to chronic irritation, such as from smoking. In this case, the respiratory tract cells being replaced by less mature squamous epithelium cells indicate metaplasia. Dysplasia refers to abnormal development or growth of cells, not replacement; hyperplasia is an increase in the number of cells, not a replacement; and coagulation is a process related to blood clotting, not cell replacement.

5. Why is the administration of benzene hexachloride (Lindane) for the treatment of scabies applied in small quantities?

• A. Excessive applications will lead to central nervous system toxicity.
• B. Excessive applications will cause irritation, rash, and inflammation.
• C. Excessive applications will cause headaches, dizziness, and diarrhea.
• D. Excessive applications will lead to anorexia and cachexia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The rationale for instructing the patient to apply benzene hexachloride (Lindane) in small quantities for scabies treatment is that excessive applications can lead to central nervous system toxicity. Lindane is a neurotoxin, and overuse or incorrect application can result in adverse effects on the central nervous system, such as seizures, dizziness, and even death. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the specific toxic effects associated with Lindane, which primarily affects the central nervous system rather than causing skin irritation, gastrointestinal symptoms, or metabolic issues.

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