ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology
1. A client with heart failure is experiencing pulmonary edema. Which intervention should be prioritized?
- A. Administer diuretics to reduce fluid overload.
- B. Position the client in high-Fowler's position.
- C. Administer oxygen therapy to improve oxygenation.
- D. Restrict fluid intake to prevent further fluid overload.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client experiencing pulmonary edema due to heart failure, the priority intervention is to administer oxygen therapy to improve oxygenation. This helps in increasing the oxygen levels in the blood, thereby improving tissue perfusion and reducing the workload on the heart. Positioning the client in high-Fowler's position can also aid in improving oxygenation, but administering oxygen therapy directly addresses the immediate need for increased oxygen levels. Administering diuretics to reduce fluid overload and restricting fluid intake are important interventions in heart failure management, but in the acute situation of pulmonary edema, oxygen therapy takes precedence to ensure adequate oxygen supply to vital organs.
2. What action is specific to hormonal contraceptives and should be taught to this woman?
- A. The cervical mucus is altered to prevent sperm penetration.
- B. The release of follicle-stimulating hormone is increased to block fertility.
- C. The maturation of the endometrial lining is activated by the contraceptive.
- D. The pituitary gland increases the synthesis and release of luteinizing hormone.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action specific to hormonal contraceptives that should be taught to the woman is that they alter cervical mucus to prevent sperm penetration. This mechanism helps in preventing pregnancy by reducing the chances of sperm reaching the egg. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is inaccurate as hormonal contraceptives work by inhibiting ovulation rather than increasing follicle-stimulating hormone release. Choice C is incorrect as hormonal contraceptives do not activate the maturation of the endometrial lining; instead, they modify it to prevent implantation. Choice D is also incorrect as hormonal contraceptives do not stimulate the pituitary gland to increase luteinizing hormone synthesis and release.
3. Following a spinal cord injury suffered in a motor vehicle accident, a 22-year-old male has lost fine motor function of his finger and thumb, but is still able to perform gross motor movements of his hand and arm. Which component of his 'white matter' has most likely been damaged?
- A. The inner layer (archilayer)
- B. The middle layer (paleolayer)
- C. The outer layer (neolayer)
- D. The reticular formation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The outer layer (neolayer). The white matter of the spinal cord consists of three layers: the outer layer (neolayer), the middle layer (paleolayer), and the inner layer (archilayer). Damage to the outer layer (neolayer) is likely to affect fine motor skills, explaining the loss of fine motor function in the finger and thumb while gross motor movements remain intact. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not correspond to the specific layer of the white matter that is typically associated with fine motor control.
4. Which of the following accurately describes the pathophysiology of asthma?
- A. Chronic inflammation of the bronchial lining
- B. Narrowing of the airway due to bronchoconstriction
- C. Damage to alveoli reducing lung elasticity
- D. Overproduction of mucus by the goblet cells
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Narrowing of the airway due to bronchoconstriction." In asthma, there is an inflammatory response that leads to bronchoconstriction, causing the airways to narrow and making it difficult to breathe. Choice A is incorrect as chronic inflammation is a feature of asthma but not the primary pathophysiological mechanism. Choice C is incorrect as damage to alveoli is more characteristic of conditions like emphysema. Choice D is incorrect as overproduction of mucus is a feature of chronic bronchitis, not asthma.
5. Which of the following is a characteristic of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which causes AIDS?
- A. HIV only infects B cells
- B. HIV is a retrovirus
- C. Infection does not require a host cell receptor
- D. After infection, cell death is immediate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. HIV is a retrovirus that infects T cells and leads to the gradual destruction of the immune system. Choice A is incorrect because HIV infects T cells primarily, not just B cells. Choice C is incorrect because HIV infection requires host cell receptors for entry. Choice D is incorrect because cell death after HIV infection is not immediate; instead, the virus gradually weakens the immune system over time.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access