Nursing Elites

1. A client with heart failure is experiencing pulmonary edema. Which intervention should be prioritized?

• A. Administer diuretics to reduce fluid overload.
• B. Position the client in high-Fowler's position.
• C. Administer oxygen therapy to improve oxygenation.
• D. Restrict fluid intake to prevent further fluid overload.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client experiencing pulmonary edema due to heart failure, the priority intervention is to administer oxygen therapy to improve oxygenation. This helps in increasing the oxygen levels in the blood, thereby improving tissue perfusion and reducing the workload on the heart. Positioning the client in high-Fowler's position can also aid in improving oxygenation, but administering oxygen therapy directly addresses the immediate need for increased oxygen levels. Administering diuretics to reduce fluid overload and restricting fluid intake are important interventions in heart failure management, but in the acute situation of pulmonary edema, oxygen therapy takes precedence to ensure adequate oxygen supply to vital organs.

2. A patient with a history of venous thromboembolism is prescribed hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What should the nurse emphasize about the risks associated with this therapy?

• A. HRT is associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, so patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots.
• B. HRT may improve mood and energy levels, but it also increases the risk of osteoporosis.
• C. HRT can decrease the risk of fractures, but it also increases the risk of developing diabetes.
• D. HRT may increase the risk of breast cancer, so regular mammograms are essential.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: HRT is associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, so patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots and advised to seek immediate medical attention if they occur.

3. A 52-year-old has made an appointment with his primary care provider and has reluctantly admitted that his primary health concern is erectile dysfunction (ED). He describes the problem as increasing in severity and consequent distress. Which of the nurse's assessment questions is most likely to address a common cause of ED?

• A. “How would you describe your overall health status?”
• B. “Are you taking any medications for high blood pressure?”
• C. “How has this issue been impacting your relationship?”
• D. “Have you experienced any recent injuries?”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the context of erectile dysfunction (ED), medication use is a crucial factor to consider. Many medications, including those used for high blood pressure, can contribute to ED as a side effect. Asking about medication use, particularly for conditions like high blood pressure, can help identify a common cause of ED. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address potential causes related to medication use, making them less likely to reveal a common underlying issue for ED in this case.

4. A 22-year-old was recently diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which decreased lab finding would be expected to accompany this virus?

• A. CD4 helper T cells
• B. CD8 helper T cells
• C. CDC cells
• D. CDC10 cells

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a person diagnosed with AIDS, a decrease in CD4 helper T cells is expected. These cells are critical for the immune system's proper functioning, and their reduction weakens the body's ability to fight infections. CD8 helper T cells (Choice B) are not typically decreased in AIDS. CDC cells (Choice C) and CDC10 cells (Choice D) are not relevant terms in this context, making them incorrect choices.

5. A patient is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for endometriosis. What should the nurse teach the patient about the proper use of this medication?

• A. Take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
• B. Avoid prolonged sun exposure while taking this medication.
• C. Discontinue the medication if side effects occur.
• D. Apply the medication once a week.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and effectiveness. Consistency in timing helps regulate the hormone levels in the body, ensuring the medication's optimal benefit. Choice B is incorrect as there is no specific need to avoid sun exposure with this medication. Choice C is incorrect because discontinuing the medication without consulting the healthcare provider may not be safe. Choice D is incorrect as medroxyprogesterone acetate is typically taken orally and not applied topically once a week.

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