Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has been receiving oxygen therapy at 2 L/min now has a respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 4 L/min.
• B. Administer a bronchodilator via nebulizer.
• C. Encourage the client to take deep breaths.
• D. Assess the client's mental status and level of consciousness.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to assess the client's mental status and level of consciousness. This assessment helps determine if the decreased respiratory rate is affecting the client's oxygenation. By evaluating the client's mental status and level of consciousness, the nurse can promptly identify any signs of respiratory distress or hypoxia, allowing for timely intervention and appropriate adjustments to the oxygen therapy or other treatments.

2. A healthcare professional auscultates a harsh hollow sound over a client's trachea & larynx. Which action should the healthcare professional take first?

• A. Document findings.
• B. Administer O2 therapy.
• C. Position client in high-Fowler's position.
• D. Administer prescribed albuterol.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The healthcare professional has identified bronchial breath sounds, which are normal findings over the trachea & larynx, characterized by harsh, hollow, tubular, and blowing sounds. The appropriate initial action for the healthcare professional is to document these normal findings. Oxygen therapy, administering albuterol, or repositioning the client is unnecessary as this finding does not indicate a need for intervention.

3. A nurse collaborates with a respiratory therapist to complete pulmonary function tests (PFTs) for a client. Which statements should the nurse include in communications with the respiratory therapist prior to the tests? (Select all that apply)

• A. I held the client's morning bronchodilator medication.
• B. The client is ready to go down to radiology for this examination.
• C. Physical therapy states the client can run on a treadmill.
• D. I advised the client not to smoke for 6 hours prior to the test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Communication between the nurse and respiratory therapist is crucial before pulmonary function tests (PFTs). It is important to inform the respiratory therapist that the client is ready for the examination. The nurse should not administer bronchodilator medication before the test as it may affect the results, and the client should not smoke for 6 to 8 hours prior to the test to ensure accurate results. Additionally, PFTs do not involve running on a treadmill; instead, the client may be required to perform specific breathing maneuvers as instructed by the respiratory therapist.

4. A client with emphysema is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse not expect to assess in this client?

• A. Dyspnea
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Barrel chest
• D. Clubbing of the fingers

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Emphysema is a chronic lung condition characterized by shortness of breath (dyspnea), a barrel-shaped chest due to hyperinflation of the lungs (barrel chest), and clubbing of the fingers (enlargement of fingertips). Bradycardia (slow heart rate) is not typically associated with emphysema. In emphysema, the primary focus is on respiratory complications rather than cardiac issues.

5. When caring for an older adult client with a pulmonary infection, what action should the nurse take first?

• A. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
• B. Assess the client's level of consciousness.
• C. Raise the head of the bed to at least 45 degrees.
• D. Provide the client with humidified oxygen.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing the client's level of consciousness is the priority because it provides crucial information on the client's neurological status and response to the infection. Changes in consciousness can indicate deterioration or improvement in the client's condition, guiding further interventions and treatment.

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