Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has been receiving oxygen therapy at 2 L/min now has a respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 4 L/min.
• B. Administer a bronchodilator via nebulizer.
• C. Encourage the client to take deep breaths.
• D. Assess the client's mental status and level of consciousness.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to assess the client's mental status and level of consciousness. This assessment helps determine if the decreased respiratory rate is affecting the client's oxygenation. By evaluating the client's mental status and level of consciousness, the nurse can promptly identify any signs of respiratory distress or hypoxia, allowing for timely intervention and appropriate adjustments to the oxygen therapy or other treatments.

2. A client has an oxygen saturation of 88% on room air. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Initiate oxygen therapy at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula.
• B. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider.
• D. Document the finding in the client's medical record.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority action for a client with an oxygen saturation of 88% on room air is to initiate oxygen therapy to improve oxygen saturation levels. Oxygen therapy is crucial to address hypoxemia promptly. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position can also aid in oxygenation, but administering oxygen takes precedence. While notifying the healthcare provider is important, it is a secondary action after ensuring the client's immediate need for oxygen is met. Documenting the finding in the client's medical record is necessary for continuity of care but is not the primary intervention when addressing hypoxemia.

3. A client is postoperative following an intermaxillary fixation due to multiple facial fractures. Which type of equipment should be at the client's bedside?

• A. Wire cutters
• B. NG tube
• C. Urinary catheter tray
• D. IV infusion pump

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client who has undergone intermaxillary fixation for facial fractures, wire cutters are essential equipment to have at the bedside in case of emergencies such as airway compromise. These wire cutters allow prompt removal of the wires securing the jaw if needed to ensure adequate airway patency. NG tube, urinary catheter tray, and IV infusion pump are important pieces of equipment in various clinical scenarios but are not specifically required for managing intermaxillary fixation postoperatively.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has postoperative atelectasis and is hypoxic. Which of the following manifestations should the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Bradypnea
• C. Lethargy
• D. Intercostal retractions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Postoperative atelectasis can lead to hypoxia, which causes respiratory distress. Intercostal retractions, where the muscles between the ribs pull inward during inspiration, are a common sign of respiratory distress in a client with atelectasis. Bradycardia (slow heart rate), Bradypnea (slow breathing rate), and lethargy are not typically associated with atelectasis and hypoxia.

5. A client just had a flexible bronchoscopy. Which of the following nursing actions is appropriate?

• A. Withhold food and liquids until the client's gag reflex returns.
• B. Irrigate the client's throat every 4 hours.
• C. Have the client refrain from talking for 24 hours.
• D. Suction the client's oropharynx frequently.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After a flexible bronchoscopy, it is crucial to withhold food and liquids until the client's gag reflex returns to prevent aspiration. Irrigating the client's throat every 4 hours, having the client refrain from talking for 24 hours, and frequent suctioning of the oropharynx are not indicated post-bronchoscopy and may even pose risks to the client's recovery.

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