Nursing Elites

1. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin therapy. What is the priority assessment for the nurse?

• A. Monitoring blood pressure
• B. Checking the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Assessing for signs of bleeding
• D. Measuring calf circumference

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing for signs of bleeding is the priority when caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) receiving heparin therapy. Heparin therapy increases the risk of bleeding complications, so monitoring for signs of bleeding is crucial to ensure patient safety and timely intervention if needed.

2. A client has been diagnosed with hypertension but does not take the antihypertensive medications because of a lack of symptoms. What response by the nurse is best?

• A. Do you have trouble affording your medications?
• B. Most people with hypertension do not have symptoms.
• C. You are lucky; most people get severe morning headaches.
• D. You need to take your medicine or you will get kidney failure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Most people with hypertension are asymptomatic, although a small percentage do have symptoms such as headache. The nurse should explain this to the client. Asking about paying for medications is not related because the client has already admitted nonadherence. Threatening the client with possible complications will not increase compliance.

3. A client is receiving oxygen therapy via nasal cannula. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. The client is able to ambulate in the hall without dyspnea.
• B. The client has a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute.
• C. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• D. The client has a productive cough.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Effective oxygen therapy should improve the client's ability to perform activities without dyspnea. This indicates that the oxygen therapy is adequately supporting the client's respiratory needs. An oxygen saturation of 92% may suggest the need for a higher flow rate to improve oxygenation. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is elevated, indicating potential respiratory distress. A productive cough does not necessarily indicate effective oxygen therapy, as it is a symptom of respiratory irritation or infection, not oxygenation status.

4. A client underwent a total laryngectomy. Which of the following is the priority observation in the client's care?

• A. Patency of the intravenous line
• B. Level of pain
• C. Integrity of the dressing
• D. Need for suctioning

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Following a total laryngectomy, maintaining a clear airway is crucial to prevent complications such as airway obstruction due to secretions or blood clots. Monitoring the need for suctioning takes precedence to ensure the client's airway remains patent. While monitoring pain levels, IV line patency, and dressing integrity are important aspects of care, ensuring adequate airway clearance through suctioning is the priority in this scenario.

5. A client is 1 day postoperative following a lobectomy with a chest tube drainage system in place. Which finding by the nurse indicates a need for intervention?

• A. Chest tube eyelets not visible
• B. Continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber
• C. Presence of tidal fluctuation in the water seal chamber
• D. Development of subcutaneous emphysema

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The development of subcutaneous emphysema is a concerning finding that requires immediate intervention. Subcutaneous emphysema results from air leaking into the tissues, which can lead to respiratory compromise. It is important to address this issue promptly to prevent further complications. The other options are normal or expected findings in a chest tube drainage system. Chest tube eyelets not being visible may indicate dislodgement, continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber indicates proper functioning, and the presence of tidal fluctuation in the water seal chamber demonstrates appropriate drainage and lung re-expansion.

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