ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam
1. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin therapy. What is the priority assessment for the nurse?
- A. Monitoring blood pressure
- B. Checking the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- C. Assessing for signs of bleeding
- D. Measuring calf circumference
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Assessing for signs of bleeding is the priority when caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) receiving heparin therapy. Heparin therapy increases the risk of bleeding complications, so monitoring for signs of bleeding is crucial to ensure patient safety and timely intervention if needed.
2. A client in a clinic presents with an acute asthma exacerbation. Which of the following medications should reduce the symptoms?
- A. Cromolyn via a metered-dose inhaler
- B. Montelukast orally
- C. Budesonide via a dry-powder inhaler
- D. Albuterol via a jet nebulizer
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During an acute asthma exacerbation, the preferred medication for symptom relief is a short-acting beta-agonist like albuterol, typically delivered via a jet nebulizer for quick onset and efficacy. Cromolyn, montelukast, and budesonide are not as effective for immediate symptom relief in acute exacerbations and are more commonly used for prevention or long-term management of asthma symptoms.
3. A client with a tracheostomy is being cared for by a nurse. The client's partner has been taught to perform suctioning. Which of the following actions by the partner should indicate to the nurse a readiness for the client's discharge?
- A. Attending a class on tracheostomy care
- B. Verbally explaining all steps in the procedure
- C. Performing the procedure independently
- D. Asking relevant questions about suctioning
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When the partner can independently perform the suctioning procedure, it demonstrates a readiness for the client's discharge. This indicates that the partner has acquired the necessary skills and knowledge to provide safe care for the client at home without the direct supervision of healthcare professionals.
4. A client is unconscious with a breathing pattern characterized by alternating periods of hyperventilation and apnea. The nurse should document that the client has which of the following respiratory alterations?
- A. Kussmaul respirations
- B. Apneustic respirations
- C. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
- D. Stridor
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea. This pattern is often seen in clients with neurological or cardiac conditions. Kussmaul respirations are deep and rapid breaths often associated with metabolic acidosis. Apneustic respirations are characterized by prolonged inhalations with shortened exhalations and can indicate damage to the pons. Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy respiratory sound usually associated with upper airway obstruction. Therefore, in this scenario, the client's alternating pattern of hyperventilation and apnea aligns with Cheyne-Stokes respirations.
5. What should the nurse prioritize when monitoring an older adult client immediately following a bronchoscopy?
- A. Observing for confusion
- B. Auscultating breath sounds
- C. Confirming the gag reflex
- D. Measuring blood pressure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Following a bronchoscopy, the priority for the nurse is to confirm the gag reflex in the older adult client. This is crucial to ensure that the client's airway is protected and free from any obstruction or aspiration. Monitoring the gag reflex helps in preventing complications such as aspiration pneumonia. While auscultating breath sounds, observing for confusion, and measuring blood pressure are important assessments, confirming the gag reflex takes precedence in this situation to maintain airway patency and prevent potential respiratory complications.
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