Nursing Elites

1. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin therapy. What is the priority assessment for the nurse?

• A. Monitoring blood pressure
• B. Checking the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Assessing for signs of bleeding
• D. Measuring calf circumference

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing for signs of bleeding is the priority when caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) receiving heparin therapy. Heparin therapy increases the risk of bleeding complications, so monitoring for signs of bleeding is crucial to ensure patient safety and timely intervention if needed.

2. During pulmonary hygiene for a client with pneumonia, a nurse positions the client on his left side in Trendelenburg position. From which of the following lung segments should the nurse expect secretions to be mobilized with the client in this position?

• A. Lateral segment of the left lower lobe
• B. Lateral segment of the right lower lobe
• C. Posterior segment of the right middle lobe
• D. Posterior segment of the right lower lobe

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is positioned on the left side in Trendelenburg position for pulmonary hygiene, secretions are expected to be mobilized from the lateral segment of the right lower lobe. This positioning helps facilitate drainage and clearance of secretions from this specific area of the lung, aiding in overall pulmonary hygiene and improving ventilation.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a fracture of the femur. Vital signs are obtained on admission and again in 2 hours. Which of the following changes in assessment should indicate to the healthcare professional that the client could be developing a serious complication?

• A. Increased respiratory rate from 18 to 44/min
• B. Increased oral temperature from 36.6� C (97.8� F) to 37� C (98.6� F)
• C. Increased blood pressure from 112/68 to 120/72 mm Hg
• D. Increased heart rate from 68 to 72/min

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An increased respiratory rate from 18 to 44/min is a significant change that should alert the healthcare professional to a potential serious complication. Such a drastic increase in respiratory rate may indicate respiratory distress or hypoxia, which are critical conditions requiring immediate attention. The other options show minor changes in vital signs that are within normal limits and are less likely to indicate a serious complication.

4. A nursing student asks what essential hypertension is. What response by the registered nurse is best?

• A. It means it is caused by another disease.
• B. It means it is essential that it be treated.
• C. It is hypertension with no specific cause.
• D. It refers to severe and life-threatening hypertension.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Essential hypertension, also known as primary or idiopathic hypertension, is the most common type of hypertension. It has no specific underlying cause such as an associated disease process. In contrast, hypertension that is due to another disease is referred to as secondary hypertension. Malignant hypertension is a severe and life-threatening form of hypertension characterized by rapidly progressive blood pressure elevation and potential end-organ damage.

5. A client is on intravenous heparin to treat a pulmonary embolism. The client's most recent partial thromboplastin time (PTT) was 25 seconds. What action should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Decrease the heparin rate.
• B. Increase the heparin rate.
• C. No change to the heparin rate.
• D. Stop the heparin; start warfarin (Coumadin).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For clients on heparin therapy, a PTT value of 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal range is required to ensure therapeutic anticoagulation. The normal PTT range is 25 to 35 seconds. In this case, the client's PTT of 25 seconds falls below the therapeutic range, indicating that the heparin dose is insufficient. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate increasing the heparin rate to achieve the desired therapeutic effect.

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