ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam
1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who had a myocardial infarction. Upon auscultating heart sounds, the provider hears the following sound. What action by the provider is most appropriate?
- A. Assess the client's lung sounds.
- B. Call the Rapid Response Team.
- C. Have the client sit upright.
- D. Listen to the client's lung sounds.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The sound described is an S3 heart sound, which can indicate heart failure. The next appropriate action for the provider is to listen to the client's lung sounds. Lung sounds can provide additional information about the client's condition, especially when abnormal heart sounds are present. Calling the Rapid Response Team is not warranted based solely on the heart sound assessment. Having the client sit upright is not directly related to addressing the abnormal heart sound.
2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being assessed by a nurse. Which finding should the nurse expect?
- A. Increased anterior-posterior (AP) chest diameter
- B. Decreased respiratory rate
- C. Weight gain
- D. Productive cough with yellow sputum
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In COPD, the client often develops a barrel chest, characterized by an increased anterior-posterior diameter of the chest. This change is due to air trapping and hyperinflation of the lungs. Decreased respiratory rate, weight gain, and productive cough with yellow sputum are not typically associated with COPD. Weight loss is more common due to increased work of breathing and decreased energy expenditure in individuals with COPD.
3. A client develops a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?
- A. Give morphine IV.
- B. Administer oxygen therapy.
- C. Start an IV infusion of lactated Ringer's.
- D. Initiate cardiac monitoring.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering oxygen therapy is the priority intervention for a client with a pulmonary embolism. Oxygen helps improve oxygenation levels and decrease the workload on the heart. It is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation before other interventions are initiated. Morphine IV, starting an IV infusion of lactated Ringer's, and initiating cardiac monitoring are important interventions but come after ensuring adequate oxygenation.
4. A client has burns to his face, ears, and eyelids. What is the priority finding for the nurse to report to the provider?
- A. Urinary output of 25 mL/hr
- B. Difficulty swallowing
- C. Heart rate of 122/min
- D. Pain level of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client has burns involving the face, ears, and eyelids, the priority finding to report to the provider is difficulty swallowing. This symptom could indicate potential airway compromise or swelling in the throat, which can lead to serious complications. Monitoring and addressing this issue promptly is crucial to ensure the client's airway remains patent and secure.
5. A client was exposed to anthrax. Which of the following antibiotics should the nurse plan to administer?
- A. Ciprofloxacin
- B. Fluconazole
- C. Tobramycin
- D. Vancomycin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the case of anthrax exposure, the recommended antibiotic for prophylaxis and treatment is Ciprofloxacin. Ciprofloxacin is effective against the anthrax bacterium, Bacillus anthracis. Fluconazole is an antifungal medication, Tobramycin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic used for bacterial infections, and Vancomycin is a glycopeptide antibiotic primarily used for Gram-positive bacterial infections. Therefore, the correct choice is Ciprofloxacin.
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