Nursing Elites

1. A client takes atorvastatin (Lipitor), with laboratory results showing a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 33 mg/dL and creatinine of 2.8 mg/dL. What action by the nurse is best?

• A. Ask if the client eats grapefruit.
• B. Assess the client for dehydration.
• C. Facilitate admission to the hospital.
• D. Obtain a random urinalysis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: There is a drug-food interaction between statins and grapefruit that can lead to acute kidney failure. The client has elevated renal laboratory results, indicating kidney involvement. The nurse should ask if the client consumes grapefruit or grapefruit juice. While dehydration can elevate BUN, the increase in creatinine is more specific for kidney injury.

2. After auscultating a client's breath sounds, the nurse is providing care. Which finding is correctly matched to the nurse's primary intervention?

• A. Hollow sounds are heard over the trachea. The nurse increases the oxygen flow rate.
• B. Crackles are heard in bases. The nurse encourages the client to cough forcefully.
• C. Wheezes are heard in central areas. The nurse administers an inhaled bronchodilator.
• D. Vesicular sounds are heard over the periphery. The nurse has the client breathe deeply.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Wheezes are indicative of narrowed airways, and bronchodilators help to open the air passages, making option C the correct match. Wheezes are typically heard in the central or peripheral lung areas and are associated with conditions like asthma or COPD. Inhaled bronchodilators work by dilating the bronchioles, which helps alleviate wheezing and improve airflow. Therefore, administering an inhaled bronchodilator is the appropriate intervention in response to wheezes.

3. A client is unconscious with a breathing pattern characterized by alternating periods of hyperventilation and apnea. The nurse should document that the client has which of the following respiratory alterations?

• A. Kussmaul respirations
• B. Apneustic respirations
• C. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
• D. Stridor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea. This pattern is often seen in clients with neurological or cardiac conditions. Kussmaul respirations are deep and rapid breaths often associated with metabolic acidosis. Apneustic respirations are characterized by prolonged inhalations with shortened exhalations and can indicate damage to the pons. Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy respiratory sound usually associated with upper airway obstruction. Therefore, in this scenario, the client's alternating pattern of hyperventilation and apnea aligns with Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

4. A client is postoperative with shallow respirations at 9/min. Which acid-base imbalance should the nurse identify the client as being at risk for developing initially?

• A. Respiratory acidosis
• B. Respiratory alkalosis
• C. Metabolic acidosis
• D. Metabolic alkalosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client's shallow respirations at 9/min indicate hypoventilation, leading to an accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood, causing respiratory acidosis. In this scenario, the client is at risk for developing respiratory acidosis due to inadequate ventilation and subsequent CO2 retention.

5. When working as a professional nurse, what is the priority for a new nurse working on an inpatient medical-surgical unit with a preceptor?

• A. Attending to holistic client needs
• B. Ensuring client safety
• C. Avoiding medication errors
• D. Providing client-focused care

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority for a nurse working on an inpatient medical-surgical unit is to ensure client safety. This is crucial as errors in hospital care can lead to preventable deaths. While attending to holistic client needs and providing client-focused care are important aspects of nursing, ensuring client safety takes precedence to prevent harm and promote positive patient outcomes.

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