Nursing Elites

1. A college health nurse interprets the peak expiratory flow rate for a student who has asthma and finds that the student is in the yellow zone of his asthma action plan. The nurse should not base her actions on which of the following information?

• A. The student should use his quick-relief inhaler.
• B. The student's asthma is not well controlled.
• C. The student's peak flow is 50% to 80% of his best peak flow.
• D. The student needs to go to the hospital

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In an asthma action plan, the yellow zone indicates caution and signals a need to monitor symptoms closely. When a student is in the yellow zone, the appropriate action is to follow the prescribed steps, which typically include using a quick-relief inhaler and closely monitoring peak flow. Going to the hospital is usually reserved for severe asthma exacerbations in the red zone. Therefore, the information that the student needs to go to the hospital is not typically appropriate when the student is in the yellow zone.

2. When caring for a client with acute pancreatitis, what intervention is most appropriate?

• A. Encourage a high-protein diet.
• B. Administer pain medication as needed.
• C. Provide small, frequent meals.
• D. Increase oral fluid intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering pain medication as needed is the most appropriate intervention for a client with acute pancreatitis. Pain management is crucial as pancreatitis can cause severe and debilitating pain. Providing pain relief is essential to improve the client's comfort and well-being.

3. A nurse collaborates with a respiratory therapist to complete pulmonary function tests (PFTs) for a client. Which statements should the nurse include in communications with the respiratory therapist prior to the tests? (SATA)

• A. I held the client's morning bronchodilator medication.
• B. The client is ready to go down to radiology for this examination.
• C. Physical therapy states the client can run on a treadmill.
• D. I advised the client not to smoke for 6 hours prior to the test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To ensure the PFTs are accurate, the therapist needs to know that no bronchodilators have been administered in the past 4 to 6 hours, the client did not smoke within 6 to 8 hours prior to the test and the client can follow basic commands, including different breathing maneuvers. The respiratory therapist can perform PFTs at the bedside. A treadmill is not used for this test.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client immediately after the removal of the endotracheal tube. Which of the following findings should the provider report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Stridor
• B. Copious oral secretions
• C. Hoarseness
• D. Sore throat

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched, harsh respiratory sound that can indicate airway obstruction. It is a serious finding that requires immediate attention as it may lead to respiratory compromise. Copious oral secretions, hoarseness, and sore throat are common but expected findings after endotracheal tube removal and do not typically require urgent intervention.

5. During a call to the on-call physician about a client who had a hysterectomy 2 days ago & has unrelieved pain from prescribed narcotic medication, which statement is part of the SBAR format for communication?

• A. I suggest ordering a different pain medication.
• B. This client has allergies to morphine & codeine.
• C. Dr. Smith does not prefer nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory meds.
• D. The client had a vaginal hysterectomy 2 days ago.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: SBAR is a structured form of communication used in healthcare settings. It stands for Situation, Background, Assessment, and Recommendation. In this scenario, informing the on-call physician about the client's allergies to morphine & codeine falls under the 'Background' component of the SBAR format, making choice B the correct answer.

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