Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who is newly diagnosed with pancreatic cancer and has questions about the disease. To research, the healthcare professional should identify that which of the following electronic databases has the most comprehensive collection of nursing articles?

• A. MEDLINE
• B. CINAHL
• C. ProQuest
• D. Health Source

Correct answer: B

Rationale: CINAHL (Cumulative Index to Nursing and Allied Health Literature) is a comprehensive database that specializes in nursing and allied health literature. It is a valuable resource for healthcare professionals seeking nursing-related articles, making it the most appropriate option for the nurse caring for a client with questions about pancreatic cancer.

2. How many drops are equivalent to 1 tsp?

• A. 15
• B. 60
• C. 10
• D. 30

Correct answer: B

Rationale: 1 teaspoon (tsp) is equivalent to approximately 60 drops. Drops and teaspoons vary in volume and size, affecting the conversion ratio. Choice A (15 drops) is incorrect as it's a common misconception. Choice C (10 drops) and Choice D (30 drops) do not align with the standard conversion of 1 tsp to 60 drops.

3. A client is in a seclusion room following violent behavior and continues to display aggressive behavior. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Confront the client about this behavior.
• B. Express sympathy for the client's situation.
• C. Speak assertively to the client.
• D. Stand within 30 cm (1 ft) of the client when speaking with them.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client in a seclusion room following violent behavior continues to display aggression, it is essential for the nurse to confront the client about this behavior. Confrontation can help set boundaries, address the behavior, and ensure the safety of both the client and the healthcare team. Expressing sympathy (Choice B) may not address the immediate need for behavior management. Speaking assertively (Choice C) can be important but should be coupled with addressing the specific behavior. Standing within close proximity (Choice D) of an aggressive client can escalate the situation and compromise safety, so it is not the appropriate action to take.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client following a gunshot wound to the chest. For which of the following findings should the healthcare professional not monitor to detect a pneumothorax?

• A. Tachypnea
• B. Deviation of the trachea
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Pleuritic pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bradycardia, which is a slow heart rate, is not typically associated with a pneumothorax. In a pneumothorax, the presence of air in the pleural space can lead to lung collapse, causing symptoms such as tachypnea (rapid breathing), deviation of the trachea, and pleuritic pain. Monitoring for bradycardia may not be as relevant in this context as it is not a typical indicator of a pneumothorax.

5. When planning care for a client with severe acute respiratory distress syndrome (SARS), which of the following actions should not be included in the care plan?

• A. Administer antibiotics
• B. Provide supplemental oxygen
• C. Administer antiviral medications
• D. Administer bronchodilators

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Severe acute respiratory distress syndrome (SARS) is caused by a virus, not bacteria, and antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections. Therefore, administering antibiotics would not be appropriate in the care plan for a client with SARS. The priority interventions for SARS include providing supplemental oxygen to improve oxygenation, administering antiviral medications to target the viral infection, and using bronchodilators to help with bronchospasm or airway constriction. Antibiotics are not indicated unless there is a secondary bacterial infection present.

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