a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving treatment with bevacizuma which of the following findings should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A client is receiving treatment with bevacizumab. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bevacizumab is known to potentially cause hypertension as a common adverse effect. The nurse should monitor the client's blood pressure regularly to detect and manage any elevations effectively. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because bevacizumab is not typically associated with causing hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, or hypocalcemia. Therefore, monitoring for hypertension is the priority in this case.

2. When educating a client starting a new prescription for simvastatin, which instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting simvastatin is to report any muscle pain immediately because it could be indicative of rhabdomyolysis, a serious side effect of the medication. This prompt reporting can help prevent further complications and ensure timely medical intervention. Choice A is incorrect because simvastatin can be taken at any time of the day. Choice C is generally true for many medications, but there is no specific interaction between grapefruit juice and simvastatin. Choice D is also incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to take simvastatin at bedtime.

3. A client taking nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) for angina asks the nurse to explain possible side effects. What should NOT be included in client teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hyponatremia is not a common side effect associated with nitroglycerin use. Nitroglycerin typically causes side effects such as reflex tachycardia, dizziness, and hypotension due to its vasodilatory effects. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to educate the client about these potential side effects to promote understanding and appropriate management.

4. A client has a new prescription for Amlodipine. Which of the following side effects should the client monitor for and report?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, can cause peripheral edema (swelling of the ankles) as a side effect. This occurs due to the dilation of blood vessels and increased fluid retention. It is important for the client to monitor for ankle swelling as it could indicate a potential adverse reaction to the medication. Reporting this side effect to the healthcare provider is crucial to ensure appropriate management and potential adjustment of the treatment plan.\n Choice B, increased urination, is not a common side effect of Amlodipine. Choice C, persistent cough, is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors rather than calcium channel blockers like Amlodipine. Choice D, dark-colored urine, is not a typical side effect of Amlodipine and is not something the client should specifically monitor for and report while taking this medication.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer heparin 15,000 units subcutaneously every 12 hr. The amount available is heparin injection 20,000 units/mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer per dose?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer, use the formula: (Desired dose / Concentration) = Volume to administer. In this case, (15,000 units / 20,000 units/mL) = 0.75 mL, which is rounded up to 0.8 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional should administer 0.8 mL per dose of heparin. Choice B (0.75 mL) is incorrect as it is the exact calculated volume but needs to be rounded up. Choices C (0.5 mL) and D (1 mL) are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculated volume for the desired dose of heparin.

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