Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving treatment with bevacizumab. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypocalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bevacizumab is known to potentially cause hypertension as a common adverse effect. The nurse should monitor the client's blood pressure regularly to detect and manage any elevations effectively. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because bevacizumab is not typically associated with causing hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, or hypocalcemia. Therefore, monitoring for hypertension is the priority in this case.

2. What is the antidote for Warfarin?

• A. Vitamin D
• B. Vitamin C
• C. Vitamin K
• D. Vitamin B6

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Vitamin K is the antidote for Warfarin toxicity as it helps reverse the anticoagulant effects of Warfarin. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, and administering vitamin K can replenish these factors, thereby counteracting the anticoagulant effects of Warfarin. Vitamin D, Vitamin C, and Vitamin B6 do not have the specific mechanism to counteract the anticoagulant effects of Warfarin, making them incorrect choices.

3. A client is receiving daily doses of Oprelvekin. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. Hemoglobin
• B. Absolute neutrophil count
• C. Platelet count
• D. Total white blood cell count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Oprelvekin is a medication that stimulates platelet production. Therefore, monitoring the platelet count is essential to assess the effectiveness of this drug. The expected outcome for oprelvekin therapy is a platelet count greater than 50,000/mm^3. Changes in platelet count can indicate the response to the medication and help in adjusting the treatment plan accordingly. Monitoring hemoglobin, absolute neutrophil count, or total white blood cell count is not directly related to the mechanism of action of Oprelvekin and therefore would not provide accurate information on the drug's effectiveness.

4. When teaching a client who has a prescription for Lisinopril, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication at bedtime.
• B. Monitor for a persistent cough.
• C. Expect to have increased appetite.
• D. Avoid foods high in potassium.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for a persistent cough.' Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause a persistent dry cough as a side effect. It is essential for the client to report this symptom to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A is incorrect because Lisinopril is typically taken in the morning. Choice C is incorrect as Lisinopril is not known to cause increased appetite. Choice D is also incorrect as Lisinopril can lead to increased potassium levels in the blood, so avoiding foods high in potassium is not necessary.

5. A client has a new prescription for Iron supplements. Which of the following instructions should be included in the teaching?

• A. Take the medication with a glass of orange juice.
• B. Avoid taking the medication with milk.
• C. Increase fiber intake to prevent constipation.
• D. Expect stools to be dark.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to increase fiber intake to prevent constipation when taking iron supplements. Iron supplements can lead to constipation as a common side effect. Increasing fiber intake helps promote healthy bowel movements and counteracts the constipating effects of iron. Choice A is incorrect because iron absorption is hindered by calcium found in milk. Choice B is incorrect as orange juice enhances iron absorption due to its vitamin C content. Choice D is incorrect as iron supplements can cause stools to appear dark, not bright red.

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