a nurse is caring for a client who has peptic ulcer disease and is prescribed omeprazole which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024

1. A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole. Which finding should indicate to the nurse that the medication is effective?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Relief of abdominal pain is a key indicator of omeprazole effectively treating peptic ulcer disease. Omeprazole works by reducing stomach acid production, which helps alleviate abdominal pain associated with peptic ulcers. While relief of other symptoms like headache, nausea, and heartburn may also occur, the primary therapeutic goal of omeprazole in peptic ulcer disease is to reduce abdominal pain caused by gastric irritation. Therefore, the relief of abdominal pain is the most significant finding to indicate the effectiveness of omeprazole in this context. Choices A, B, and D may improve as a result of decreased stomach acid production, but they are not as specific or central to the therapeutic goal of treating peptic ulcer disease as the relief of abdominal pain.

2. A client is taking Digoxin and has a new prescription for Colesevelam. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When taking colesevelam, it should be administered with food and at least 8 oz of water to ensure proper absorption and reduce the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Taking colesevelam with food also helps in binding to bile acids efficiently. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not provide the necessary instruction for taking colesevelam correctly or monitoring specific side effects associated with this medication.

3. A client has a new prescription for Warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 4.0 is above the therapeutic range for a client on Warfarin, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. This finding requires immediate reporting to the provider for appropriate intervention to prevent complications associated with excessive anticoagulation. Potassium, sodium, and creatinine levels are within normal ranges and are not directly related to the risk of bleeding in a client on Warfarin therapy.

4. A client with breast cancer is being taught about Tamoxifen. Which of the following adverse effects of tamoxifen should the client be informed about?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Abnormal uterine bleeding is a known adverse effect of tamoxifen. It is important to educate the client about this side effect as those taking tamoxifen are at an increased risk for endometrial cancer. Any abnormal uterine bleeding should be promptly reported and evaluated by healthcare providers to ensure timely management and monitoring. The other options, such as irregular heart rhythm, yellowing of the sclera or dark-colored urine, and difficulty swallowing, are not typically associated with tamoxifen use and are not commonly reported adverse effects. Therefore, they are not the priority adverse effects to inform the client about.

5. A client has a new prescription for Lisinopril. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause hyperkalemia by reducing potassium excretion through the kidneys. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to detect hyperkalemia early and prevent adverse effects such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Lisinopril is not known to significantly impact sodium, calcium, or magnesium levels in the same way it affects potassium levels.

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