a nurse is caring for a client who has peptic ulcer disease and is prescribed omeprazole which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024

1. A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole. Which finding should indicate to the nurse that the medication is effective?

A. Relief of headache
B. Relief of nausea
C. Relief of abdominal pain
D. Relief of heartburn

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Relief of abdominal pain is a key indicator of omeprazole effectively treating peptic ulcer disease. Omeprazole works by reducing stomach acid production, which helps alleviate abdominal pain associated with peptic ulcers. While relief of other symptoms like headache, nausea, and heartburn may also occur, the primary therapeutic goal of omeprazole in peptic ulcer disease is to reduce abdominal pain caused by gastric irritation. Therefore, the relief of abdominal pain is the most significant finding to indicate the effectiveness of omeprazole in this context. Choices A, B, and D may improve as a result of decreased stomach acid production, but they are not as specific or central to the therapeutic goal of treating peptic ulcer disease as the relief of abdominal pain.

2. A client with osteoporosis has a new prescription for alendronate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?

A. Take the medication with a meal.
B. Remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication.
C. Take the medication with a glass of juice.
D. Take the medication with milk or food.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking alendronate is to remain upright for at least 30 minutes after administration. This is essential to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure the medication reaches the stomach properly. Remaining upright reduces the risk of side effects such as esophagitis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as alendronate should not be taken with a meal, juice, milk, or food to optimize its absorption and effectiveness.

3. A client is receiving Morphine IV for pain management. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A. Monitor the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes.
B. Monitor the client's blood pressure every 30 minutes.
C. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation every hour.
D. Monitor the client's heart rate every 5 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse is to monitor the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes while on Morphine IV to promptly detect respiratory depression, a critical adverse effect associated with this medication. Respiratory depression is a common side effect of opioid medications like Morphine and can be life-threatening. Monitoring the respiratory rate frequently enables the nurse to identify early signs of respiratory compromise and intervene promptly. Monitoring other vital signs like blood pressure, oxygen saturation, or heart rate is important but not as crucial as monitoring respiratory rate when a client is on Morphine IV.

4. Which of the following is not a side effect of loop diuretics?

A. Alkalosis
B. Nausea
C. Hypotension
D. Potassium deficits

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nausea is not commonly associated with loop diuretics. Loop diuretics are known to cause electrolyte imbalances such as potassium deficits, metabolic alkalosis, and hypotension due to excessive fluid loss. Nausea is not a typical side effect of loop diuretics.