Nursing Elites

1. A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole. Which finding should indicate to the nurse that the medication is effective?

• A. Relief of headache
• B. Relief of nausea
• C. Relief of abdominal pain
• D. Relief of heartburn

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Relief of abdominal pain is a key indicator of omeprazole effectively treating peptic ulcer disease. Omeprazole works by reducing stomach acid production, which helps alleviate abdominal pain associated with peptic ulcers. While relief of other symptoms like headache, nausea, and heartburn may also occur, the primary therapeutic goal of omeprazole in peptic ulcer disease is to reduce abdominal pain caused by gastric irritation. Therefore, the relief of abdominal pain is the most significant finding to indicate the effectiveness of omeprazole in this context. Choices A, B, and D may improve as a result of decreased stomach acid production, but they are not as specific or central to the therapeutic goal of treating peptic ulcer disease as the relief of abdominal pain.

2. A client has a new prescription for Levodopa/Carbidopa for Parkinson's disease. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Increase intake of protein-rich foods.
• B. Expect muscle twitching to occur.
• C. Take this medication with food.
• D. Anticipate relief of manifestations in 24 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to take Levodopa/Carbidopa with food. Taking this medication with food helps reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Instructing the client to take the medication with food promotes better tolerance and absorption of the drug. Choice A is incorrect because increasing protein-rich foods is not specifically related to the administration of this medication. Choice B is incorrect as muscle twitching is not a common side effect of Levodopa/Carbidopa. Choice D is incorrect because relief of manifestations may take longer than 24 hours to occur.

3. A client with prostate cancer is receiving leuprolide. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Increased testosterone levels
• B. Increased libido
• C. Gynecomastia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for gynecomastia, as it is an adverse effect of leuprolide due to decreased testosterone levels. Leuprolide works by decreasing testosterone production, which can lead to gynecomastia, the development of male breast tissue. Monitoring for this side effect is essential for early detection and intervention.

4. What is a severe adverse effect of warfarin?

• A. Bleeding
• B. Arrhythmias
• C. Blurred vision
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A severe adverse effect of warfarin is bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting blood clotting factors, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Excessive bleeding can occur internally or externally, and it is crucial for individuals taking warfarin to be aware of this potential complication and seek medical attention if they experience any signs of bleeding. Arrhythmias, blurred vision, and bradycardia are not typically associated with warfarin use, making them incorrect choices.

5. What should a patient avoid while taking Angiotensin-converting enzymes?

• A. Salt substitutes
• B. Foods high in potassium
• C. Foods high in sodium
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients taking Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors should avoid salt substitutes because they can contain potassium chloride, which may lead to hyperkalemia. It is important to restrict potassium-rich foods while on ACE inhibitors, but the primary concern with salt substitutes is their potassium content.

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