Nursing Elites

1. A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole. Which finding should indicate to the nurse that the medication is effective?

• A. Relief of headache
• B. Relief of nausea
• C. Relief of abdominal pain
• D. Relief of heartburn

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Relief of abdominal pain is a key indicator of omeprazole effectively treating peptic ulcer disease. Omeprazole works by reducing stomach acid production, which helps alleviate abdominal pain associated with peptic ulcers. While relief of other symptoms like headache, nausea, and heartburn may also occur, the primary therapeutic goal of omeprazole in peptic ulcer disease is to reduce abdominal pain caused by gastric irritation. Therefore, the relief of abdominal pain is the most significant finding to indicate the effectiveness of omeprazole in this context. Choices A, B, and D may improve as a result of decreased stomach acid production, but they are not as specific or central to the therapeutic goal of treating peptic ulcer disease as the relief of abdominal pain.

2. A client has a new prescription for Cyanocobalamin (Vitamin B12) injections. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will need to take this medication for the rest of my life.
• B. I will stop taking the medication when my symptoms improve.
• C. I should take this medication with food.
• D. I will need to avoid green, leafy vegetables while taking this medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with pernicious anemia or other causes of vitamin B12 deficiency may need to take cyanocobalamin for life to prevent deficiency. It is a lifelong treatment in many cases to maintain adequate B12 levels. Choice B is incorrect because stopping the medication when symptoms improve may lead to a relapse of the deficiency. Choice C is incorrect as cyanocobalamin injections are usually administered on an empty stomach. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to avoid green, leafy vegetables while taking cyanocobalamin; in fact, these vegetables are good dietary sources of vitamin B12.

3. A client is receiving moderate sedation with Diazepam IV and is oversedated. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to this client?

• A. Ketamine
• B. Naltrexone
• C. Flumazenil
• D. Fluvoxamine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Flumazenil is a competitive benzodiazepine antagonist that can reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines like Diazepam. In cases of oversedation, administering Flumazenil can help counteract the excessive sedation and other effects of Diazepam, thereby promoting the client's recovery and preventing potential complications. Ketamine (Choice A) is a dissociative anesthetic and not used to reverse benzodiazepine sedation. Naltrexone (Choice B) is an opioid receptor antagonist, not indicated for benzodiazepine oversedation. Fluvoxamine (Choice D) is an antidepressant and not used to reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines.

4. When educating a client with a new prescription for Enalapril, which manifestation should the nurse instruct the client to report as an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Tremors
• B. Dry cough
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Hyperactivity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A persistent dry cough is a well-known adverse effect of ACE inhibitors, such as enalapril. This cough can be bothersome and may indicate the need for a medication adjustment. It is crucial for the client to report this symptom to their healthcare provider to explore potential alternatives or adjustments to the treatment plan. Tremors, drowsiness, and hyperactivity are not commonly associated with enalapril and are less likely to be attributed to this medication.

5. A client is starting therapy with cisplatin, and a healthcare provider is providing education. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider instruct the client to report?

• A. Tinnitus
• B. Nausea
• C. Constipation
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tinnitus. The healthcare provider should instruct the client to report tinnitus, as it can be an indication of ototoxicity, an adverse effect associated with cisplatin therapy. Ototoxicity is damage to the inner ear structures that can lead to hearing loss, making it crucial for the client to report any early signs such as tinnitus to prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are less concerning in the context of cisplatin therapy. Nausea and constipation are common side effects of cisplatin but are not typically indicative of serious complications requiring immediate reporting. Weight gain is not a typical side effect associated with cisplatin therapy and is less likely to be related to the medication.

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