ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024
1. A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole. Which finding should indicate to the nurse that the medication is effective?
- A. Relief of headache
- B. Relief of nausea
- C. Relief of abdominal pain
- D. Relief of heartburn
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Relief of abdominal pain is a key indicator of omeprazole effectively treating peptic ulcer disease. Omeprazole works by reducing stomach acid production, which helps alleviate abdominal pain associated with peptic ulcers. While relief of other symptoms like headache, nausea, and heartburn may also occur, the primary therapeutic goal of omeprazole in peptic ulcer disease is to reduce abdominal pain caused by gastric irritation. Therefore, the relief of abdominal pain is the most significant finding to indicate the effectiveness of omeprazole in this context. Choices A, B, and D may improve as a result of decreased stomach acid production, but they are not as specific or central to the therapeutic goal of treating peptic ulcer disease as the relief of abdominal pain.
2. A healthcare professional is reviewing a new prescription for Ondansetron 4 mg PO PRN for nausea and vomiting for a client who has Hyperemesis Gravidarum. The healthcare professional should clarify which of the following parts of the prescription with the provider?
- A. Name
- B. Dosage
- C. Route
- D. Frequency
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The prescription lacks the frequency of medication administration, which is crucial for ensuring appropriate use. In this case, the frequency of when the medication can be taken needs to be clarified with the provider to provide safe and effective care for the client with Hyperemesis Gravidarum.
3. Which of the following drugs has a therapeutic effect that prevents thromboembolic events?
- A. Warfarin
- B. Amlodipine
- C. Nitroglycerin
- D. Clopidogrel
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Warfarin. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that helps prevent thromboembolic events by inhibiting the formation of blood clots. It is commonly used to reduce the risk of strokes or heart attacks in patients at risk for thrombosis.
4. When assessing a client taking Gemfibrozil, which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse reaction to the medication?
- A. Mental status changes
- B. Tremor
- C. Jaundice
- D. Pneumonia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Jaundice is an adverse reaction that can occur in clients taking Gemfibrozil due to the potential development of liver impairment. Other symptoms of liver impairment may include anorexia and upper abdominal discomfort. Monitoring for signs of jaundice is crucial to detect and manage adverse effects of the medication promptly. Mental status changes (choice A) are not commonly associated with Gemfibrozil use. Tremor (choice B) is not a typical adverse reaction of Gemfibrozil. Pneumonia (choice D) is not directly linked to Gemfibrozil use but can be a complication in some cases.
5. A client has a new prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication in the morning.
- B. Consume foods rich in potassium.
- C. Take this medication with a meal.
- D. Monitor for signs of dehydration.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lead to dehydration due to increased urination. Signs of dehydration include dry mouth, increased thirst, and decreased urine output. It is essential to educate the client to monitor these signs and seek medical attention if they occur. Choice A is incorrect because Hydrochlorothiazide is usually taken in the morning to prevent disruption of sleep due to increased urination during the night. Choice B is incorrect because while Hydrochlorothiazide can lead to potassium loss, consuming foods rich in potassium is not a specific instruction related to this medication. Choice C is incorrect because taking Hydrochlorothiazide with a meal is not a specific requirement for its administration.
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