ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024
1. A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole. Which finding should indicate to the nurse that the medication is effective?
- A. Relief of headache
- B. Relief of nausea
- C. Relief of abdominal pain
- D. Relief of heartburn
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Relief of abdominal pain is a key indicator of omeprazole effectively treating peptic ulcer disease. Omeprazole works by reducing stomach acid production, which helps alleviate abdominal pain associated with peptic ulcers. While relief of other symptoms like headache, nausea, and heartburn may also occur, the primary therapeutic goal of omeprazole in peptic ulcer disease is to reduce abdominal pain caused by gastric irritation. Therefore, the relief of abdominal pain is the most significant finding to indicate the effectiveness of omeprazole in this context. Choices A, B, and D may improve as a result of decreased stomach acid production, but they are not as specific or central to the therapeutic goal of treating peptic ulcer disease as the relief of abdominal pain.
2. A healthcare provider is educating a client who has a prescription for Theophylline. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare provider include?
- A. Avoid caffeine while taking this medication.
- B. You should increase your fluid intake.
- C. Take this medication in the evening.
- D. You may experience increased appetite while on this medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Avoid caffeine while taking this medication.' Caffeine can increase the risk of theophylline toxicity as it competes for the same metabolic pathways. Consuming caffeine while on theophylline can lead to adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect because although maintaining adequate hydration is important, it is not a specific instruction related to theophylline use. Choice C is incorrect as the timing of the medication administration should be based on the healthcare provider's recommendation and the client's individual needs. Choice D is incorrect as increased appetite is not a common side effect associated with theophylline.
3. A client is starting a course of Metronidazole to treat an infection. For which of the following adverse effects should the client stop taking Metronidazole and notify the provider?
- A. Metallic taste
- B. Nausea
- C. Ataxia
- D. Dark-colored urine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Ataxia.' Ataxia is a sign of central nervous system (CNS) toxicity, which can be a severe adverse effect of Metronidazole. Metallic taste and nausea are common side effects of Metronidazole but do not require stopping the medication unless they persist or worsen. Dark-colored urine is not typically associated with Metronidazole and does not indicate a severe adverse effect.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer IV Dantrolene to a client who has developed Malignant Hyperthermia during surgery. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Dilute the medication with sterile water and administer it rapidly.
- B. Store the medication in a refrigerator until use.
- C. Administer the medication through a large-bore IV catheter.
- D. Administer the medication via an infusion pump over 60 minutes.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Dantrolene should be administered through a large-bore IV catheter because it is highly irritating to tissues and can cause vein irritation or thrombophlebitis if administered through a small vein. Using a large-bore IV catheter helps to minimize the risk of tissue damage and ensures proper and safe administration of the medication in emergency situations like Malignant Hyperthermia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because diluting the medication with sterile water and administering it rapidly can lead to tissue damage, storing the medication in a refrigerator is not necessary, and administering the medication via an infusion pump over 60 minutes is not appropriate in emergency situations like Malignant Hyperthermia where rapid administration is crucial.
5. A client is starting therapy with raloxifene. Which adverse effect should the client monitor for as instructed by the nurse?
- A. Leg cramps
- B. Hot flashes
- C. Urinary frequency
- D. Hair loss
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hot flashes are a common adverse effect associated with raloxifene therapy. Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) used to prevent and treat osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. Hot flashes are a well-known side effect of SERMs due to their estrogen-like effects on the body. Leg cramps, urinary frequency, and hair loss are not typically associated with raloxifene therapy. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to monitor for hot flashes as part of the medication education.
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