Nursing Elites

1. A school-age child has a new prescription for Atomoxetine. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Kidney toxicity
• B. Liver damage
• C. Seizure activity
• D. Adrenal insufficiency

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Liver damage is an adverse effect of Atomoxetine. The nurse should monitor for manifestations such as jaundice, upper abdominal tenderness, darkening of urine, and elevated liver enzymes. It is crucial to be vigilant for signs of liver damage to ensure early detection and intervention to prevent further complications. Kidney toxicity is not a common adverse effect of Atomoxetine. Seizure activity and adrenal insufficiency are also not typically associated with this medication.

2. A client has a new prescription for a Fentanyl transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Apply the patch to a non-hairy area.
• B. Change the patch every 72 hours.
• C. Avoid exposure to heat sources.
• D. Do not cut the patch to adjust the dosage.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include for a client using a Fentanyl transdermal patch is to avoid exposure to heat sources. Heat can increase the absorption of the medication, potentially causing an overdose. Instructing the client to avoid heat sources is crucial to ensure their safety and the effectiveness of the medication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because applying the patch to a non-hairy area, changing it every 72 hours, and not cutting the patch are general guidelines for using transdermal patches but do not specifically address the unique risks associated with Fentanyl patches.

3. A client has a new prescription for Alendronate to treat osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water after rising in the morning.
• B. Lie down for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication.
• C. Take the medication before bedtime to reduce the risk of esophageal irritation.
• D. Crush the tablet and mix it with applesauce if having difficulty swallowing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction is to take Alendronate with a full glass of water after rising in the morning. This helps reduce the risk of esophageal irritation, as the medication can cause irritation if not taken correctly. Taking it before bedtime (choice C) can increase the risk of irritation as the individual lies down. Lying down after taking the medication (choice B) can also lead to esophageal irritation. Crushing the tablet (choice D) is not recommended as Alendronate should be taken whole with a full glass of water.

4. A client is receiving treatment with methotrexate. Which of the following supplements should the nurse instruct the client to take?

• A. Folic acid
• B. Vitamin D
• C. Calcium
• D. Iron

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to take folic acid when receiving treatment with methotrexate to reduce the risk of methotrexate toxicity. Methotrexate acts as a folic acid antagonist, leading to folic acid deficiency, which can be counteracted by supplementing with folic acid. Vitamin D, calcium, and iron are not specifically recommended to counteract methotrexate effects and do not play a significant role in mitigating methotrexate toxicity.

5. Which of the following is classified as a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

• A. Quinidine
• B. Disopyramide
• C. Aminodarone
• D. Propafenone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Quinidine is classified as a class IA sodium channel blocker. Class IA antiarrhythmics, like quinidine, work by blocking sodium channels and delaying repolarization. Propafenone, mentioned in the original rationale, is actually a class IC antiarrhythmic agent, not a class IA sodium channel blocker.

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