Nursing Elites

1. A client is taking Epoetin Alfa for anemia. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. White blood cell count
• B. Platelet count
• C. Hematocrit
• D. Serum potassium level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the hematocrit level to evaluate the effectiveness of Epoetin Alfa therapy since it stimulates red blood cell production. Hematocrit reflects the volume of red blood cells in the blood, providing a direct measure of the therapy's impact on increasing red blood cell mass and addressing anemia. Monitoring white blood cell count and platelet count is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of Epoetin Alfa therapy for anemia. Serum potassium level monitoring may be necessary due to potential side effects of the medication, but it is not the primary indicator of therapy effectiveness in treating anemia.

2. A healthcare provider is planning to administer Ciprofloxacin IV to a client who has cystitis. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?

• A. Administer a concentrated solution.
• B. Infuse the medication over 60 min.
• C. Infuse the solution through the primary IV fluid tubing.
• D. Choose a small peripheral vein for administration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ciprofloxacin should be infused over 60 minutes to minimize vein irritation and reduce the risk of adverse effects. Administering a concentrated solution can lead to vein irritation and potential complications. Infusing the solution through the primary IV fluid tubing can cause incompatibility issues. Choosing a small peripheral vein may not be suitable for administering Ciprofloxacin, which should be infused through a larger vein to prevent vein irritation and ensure a proper dilution of the medication.

3. A client has a new prescription for Amlodipine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?

• A. Take the medication at bedtime.
• B. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
• C. Increase your intake of high-sodium foods.
• D. Expect a dry cough.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include during discharge teaching is to advise the client to avoid drinking grapefruit juice. Grapefruit juice can inhibit the metabolism of amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, leading to increased drug levels in the blood. This can result in potentiated side effects and potential toxicity. Option A is incorrect as amlodipine is usually taken once daily, not specifically at bedtime. Option C is incorrect because high-sodium foods are generally discouraged in individuals with hypertension. Option D is incorrect as a dry cough is not an expected side effect of amlodipine.

4. A client has a new prescription for Docusate Sodium. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• B. Expect results within 30 minutes.
• C. Take this medication at bedtime.
• D. Avoid taking this medication with food.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Docusate Sodium is to take the medication with a full glass of water. Docusate sodium is a stool softener, and taking it with water helps to soften the stool and make bowel movements easier. Adequate fluid intake is crucial when taking stool softeners to prevent constipation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. B is incorrect because the effects of Docusate Sodium may not be immediate, and it may take a couple of days for the stool softener to work. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to take this medication at bedtime. Choice D is incorrect because there is no instruction to avoid taking Docusate Sodium with food.

5. A nurse in a clinic is caring for a group of clients. The nurse should contact the provider about a potential contraindication to a medication for which of the following clients? (Select all that apply.)

• A. A client at 8 weeks of gestation who asks for an Influenza immunization
• B. A client who takes Prednisone and has a possible Fungal infection
• C. A client who has chronic liver disease and is taking Hydrocodone
• D. A client who has Peptic Ulcer Disease, takes Sucralfate, and tells the nurse she has started taking OTC Aluminum Hydroxide

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prednisone, a glucocorticoid, should not be taken by a client who has a possible systemic fungal infection as it can worsen the infection. This combination can suppress the immune response, allowing the fungal infection to proliferate. Therefore, the nurse should contact the provider regarding this potential contraindication to medication. The other options do not present a contraindication related to the medication interactions described in the question.

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