Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to initiate IV therapy for an older adult client. Which of the following actions should the professional plan to take?

• A. Use a blood pressure cuff to distend the veins.
• B. Select the antecubital area to insert the IV catheter.
• C. Distend the veins by using a blood pressure cuff.
• D. Direct the client to lower his arm below his heart.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The healthcare professional should distend the veins using a blood pressure cuff to make the veins more visible and accessible for IV catheter insertion. This technique helps reduce the risk of overfilling the vein, which can lead to complications such as hematoma formation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while selecting the antecubital area is often appropriate for IV insertion in adults, the key action in this scenario is to distend the veins using a blood pressure cuff to facilitate the procedure.

2. Which of the following is not a side effect associated with Prednisone toxicity?

• A. Cataracts
• B. Hypotension
• C. Psychosis
• D. Acne

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prednisone toxicity is not typically associated with hypotension; instead, it can lead to hypertension. Cataracts, psychosis, and acne are known side effects of Prednisone toxicity.

3. A client has a new prescription for Metformin. Which of the following adverse effects of Metformin should the nurse instruct the client to report to the provider?

• A. Somnolence
• B. Constipation
• C. Fluid retention
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Somnolence. Somnolence can indicate lactic acidosis, a rare but serious adverse effect of Metformin. Lactic acidosis is manifested by extreme drowsiness, hyperventilation, and muscle pain. Clients should be instructed to report these symptoms to their healthcare provider promptly to prevent further complications.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer IV Vancomycin to a client who has a systemic infection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Administer the medication rapidly over 15 minutes.
• B. Monitor the client for hypertension during infusion.
• C. Administer a test dose before the full dose.
• D. Monitor the client for Red Man Syndrome.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the healthcare professional is to monitor the client for Red Man Syndrome. Red Man Syndrome is a common adverse reaction to Vancomycin characterized by flushing, rash, and hypotension. It is important to monitor the client for these symptoms to intervene promptly if they occur.

5. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. Monitor for signs of hyperglycemia.
• C. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
• D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid drinking grapefruit juice. Grapefruit juice can inhibit the metabolism of Verapamil, leading to increased blood levels of the medication, which can potentiate its effects, potentially causing adverse reactions like hypotension and bradycardia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Taking Verapamil at bedtime is not a specific instruction related to its metabolism or side effects. Monitoring for signs of hyperglycemia is not directly related to Verapamil use. Increasing potassium-rich foods intake is not necessary with Verapamil and could potentially lead to hyperkalemia in some cases.

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