a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving warfarin therapy which of the following laboratory results indicates the need for an increase in the d
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving warfarin therapy. Which of the following laboratory results indicates the need for an increase in the dose of warfarin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An INR of 1.2 is below the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating inadequate anticoagulation. Therefore, the client would require an increase in the dose of warfarin to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. Choices A, C, and D are not indicative of the need for a dose increase in warfarin therapy. PT of 28 seconds is within the therapeutic range, aPTT of 40 seconds is also within the normal range, and fibrinogen level of 350 mg/dL does not provide information about the anticoagulant effect of warfarin.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for clozapine. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the WBC count. Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis, a severe decrease in WBC count, which can increase the risk of infection. Monitoring the WBC count is essential to detect this potentially life-threatening condition early. Monitoring blood glucose levels (Choice A) is not directly related to clozapine use. Platelet count (Choice C) and hemoglobin levels (Choice D) are not typically affected by clozapine and are not the priority for monitoring in this case.

3. A nurse manager is updating protocols for the use of belt restraints. Which of the following guidelines should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When updating protocols for the use of belt restraints, it is essential to document the client's condition every 15 minutes. This frequent documentation helps ensure the client's safety and allows for timely assessment of the need for continued restraint use. Choice A is incorrect because restraints should be removed and reassessed more frequently than every 4 hours. Choice C is incorrect as restraints should not be attached to the bed's side rails due to entrapment risks. Choice D is also incorrect as restraints should not be used as needed (PRN) but rather based on a specific prescription and assessment indicating the need for restraint use.

4. How should a healthcare provider monitor a patient with fluid overload?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring daily weight is crucial in assessing fluid retention accurately in a patient with fluid overload. Changes in weight can indicate fluid accumulation or loss, providing valuable information for healthcare providers. Checking for edema (choice B) is important but may not always accurately reflect total body fluid status. Monitoring input and output (choice C) and blood pressure (choice D) are also essential aspects of patient assessment, but they may not directly reflect the extent of fluid overload as effectively as monitoring daily weight.

5. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods when taking furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, so consuming potassium-rich foods like bananas and oranges can help maintain adequate potassium levels. Choice A is incorrect because there is no need to avoid consuming dairy products. Choice C is incorrect because while fluid intake may need to be monitored, the general instruction is not to limit fluids to prevent dehydration. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide is usually best taken during the day to avoid disrupting sleep with frequent urination.

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