Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation following an amniocentesis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications?

• A. Vomiting.
• B. Hypertension.
• C. Epigastric pain.
• D. Contractions.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Following an amniocentesis at 33 weeks of gestation, the nurse should monitor the client for contractions. Contractions can indicate preterm labor, which requires immediate attention. Vomiting, hypertension, and epigastric pain are not typically associated with amniocentesis complications at this gestational age.

2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and is scheduled for a nonstress test. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. The test will last about 30 minutes.
• B. You should drink a full glass of water prior to the test.
• C. You will need to have your bladder full for this test.
• D. This test measures how well your baby's heart responds to movement.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A nonstress test measures the fetal heart's response to movement, helping to assess fetal well-being. Choice A is incorrect as the duration of the test can vary, and it is not always precisely 30 minutes. Choice B is incorrect as drinking water is not necessary for a nonstress test. Choice C is incorrect as having a full bladder is not required for this test.

3. A client who is at 10 weeks of gestation is being taught about nutrition during pregnancy. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should consume 1,200 calories per day.
• B. I should increase my daily intake of folic acid.
• C. I should drink 2 liters of water each day.
• D. I should limit my intake of iron-rich foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Increasing folic acid intake is crucial during pregnancy to prevent neural tube defects. Option A is incorrect because calorie requirements during pregnancy vary and are generally higher than 1,200 calories per day. Option C is not specific to pregnancy nutrition teaching, although hydration is important. Option D is incorrect as iron-rich foods are typically recommended during pregnancy to prevent anemia.

4. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes the loss of potassium in the urine, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is the opposite of the expected electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is not a common side effect of furosemide.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hr postoperative following an inguinal hernia repair. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 88/min
• B. Pain rating of 4 on a scale of 0 to 10
• C. Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg
• D. Urine output of 20 mL/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A low urine output of 20 mL/hr, less than the expected 30 mL/hr or more, could indicate renal impairment or inadequate fluid status postoperatively. In this scenario, early detection and intervention are crucial to prevent further complications. The other findings - heart rate of 88/min, pain rating of 4, and blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg - are within normal limits for a client 2 hr postoperative following an inguinal hernia repair and do not raise immediate concerns.

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