Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving vancomycin. Which of the following laboratory results should be monitored to evaluate the therapeutic effect of this medication?

• A. BUN
• B. Creatinine
• C. Hemoglobin
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Creatinine levels should be monitored to evaluate vancomycin's effect on kidney function. Vancomycin can be nephrotoxic, so monitoring creatinine levels helps assess renal function and ensure that the medication is not causing harm to the kidneys. Monitoring BUN (choice A) is important for assessing kidney function but is not as specific as monitoring creatinine levels. Hemoglobin (choice C) and white blood cell count (choice D) are not directly related to evaluating the therapeutic effect of vancomycin.

2. A client received IV Verapamil to treat supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). The client's pulse rate is now 98/min, and blood pressure is 74/44 mm Hg. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following IV medications?

• A. Calcium gluconate
• B. Sodium bicarbonate
• C. Potassium chloride
• D. Magnesium sulfate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, where the client's blood pressure is significantly lowered due to Verapamil administration, the nurse should anticipate a prescription for Calcium gluconate. Calcium gluconate is used to reverse severe hypotension caused by Verapamil. It should be given slowly intravenously as it counteracts the vasodilation caused by Verapamil, helping to normalize blood pressure levels. Sodium bicarbonate is not indicated for low blood pressure. Potassium chloride and magnesium sulfate are not the appropriate choices to address hypotension caused by Verapamil.

3. A client with HIV-1 infection is prescribed zidovudine as part of antiretroviral therapy. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Cardiac dysrhythmia
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Renal failure
• D. Aplastic anemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Zidovudine is associated with the development of aplastic anemia, a serious adverse effect characterized by bone marrow suppression. Regular monitoring is essential to detect this side effect early and prevent complications. Cardiac dysrhythmia, metabolic alkalosis, and renal failure are not commonly associated with zidovudine use, making them incorrect choices for adverse effects of this medication.

4. A client with Atrial Fibrillation is prescribed Dabigatran to prevent Thrombosis. Which medication is prescribed concurrently to treat an adverse effect of Dabigatran?

• A. Vitamin K1
• B. Protamine
• C. Omeprazole
• D. Probenecid

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Omeprazole or another proton pump inhibitor is commonly prescribed for clients taking dabigatran who experience abdominal pain and other gastrointestinal adverse effects associated with dabigatran use. Proton pump inhibitors help alleviate these symptoms by reducing gastric acid secretion, which can contribute to gastrointestinal discomfort. Vitamin K1 is not indicated for adverse effects of dabigatran. Protamine is used to reverse the anticoagulant effects of heparin, not dabigatran. Probenecid is not typically used to treat adverse effects of dabigatran.

5. A drug ending in the suffix (tidine) is considered a ______.

• A. Antidepressant
• B. Protease inhibitor
• C. Beta antagonist
• D. H antagonist

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Drugs ending in -tidine are histamine (H2) receptor antagonists, which block the action of histamine at the H2 receptors, commonly used to reduce stomach acid production. Therefore, the correct answer is an 'H antagonist.' It is essential to be familiar with drug suffixes as they can provide clues to the drug's class and function.

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