Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving vancomycin. Which of the following laboratory results should be monitored to evaluate the therapeutic effect of this medication?

• A. BUN
• B. Creatinine
• C. Hemoglobin
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Creatinine levels should be monitored to evaluate vancomycin's effect on kidney function. Vancomycin can be nephrotoxic, so monitoring creatinine levels helps assess renal function and ensure that the medication is not causing harm to the kidneys. Monitoring BUN (choice A) is important for assessing kidney function but is not as specific as monitoring creatinine levels. Hemoglobin (choice C) and white blood cell count (choice D) are not directly related to evaluating the therapeutic effect of vancomycin.

2. A client with deep vein thrombosis has been on heparin continuous infusion for 5 days. The provider prescribes warfarin PO without discontinuing the heparin. The client asks the nurse why both anticoagulants are necessary. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. Warfarin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the warfarin reaches a therapeutic level.
• B. I will call the provider to get a prescription for discontinuing the IV heparin today.
• C. Both heparin and warfarin work together to dissolve the clots.
• D. The IV heparin increases the effects of the warfarin and decreases the length of your hospital stay.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because warfarin takes several days to reach a therapeutic level and exert its full anticoagulant effect. During this time, the IV heparin is continued to prevent clotting until the warfarin is effective. Both medications are used together temporarily for this reason. Discontinuing heparin prematurely can increase the risk of clot formation. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the client that the IV heparin will be continued until the warfarin reaches a therapeutic level.

3. A client receives a new prescription for NRTIs for HIV treatment. Which statement should the nurse include during teaching about these medications?

• A. These medications work by inhibiting enzymes to prevent HIV replication.
• B. These medications work by preventing protein synthesis within the HIV cell.
• C. These medications work by weakening the cell wall of the HIV virus.
• D. These medications work by blocking HIV entry into cells.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: NRTIs inhibit the enzyme reverse transcriptase, essential for HIV replication. By preventing this process, viral replication is hindered, ultimately reducing the viral load in the body. Option A correctly explains the mechanism of action of NRTIs in treating HIV infection. Choices B, C, and D describe mechanisms of action that do not align with how NRTIs work in HIV treatment. B is incorrect because NRTIs do not target protein synthesis within the HIV cell. C is incorrect as NRTIs do not affect the cell wall of the HIV virus. D is incorrect because NRTIs do not block HIV entry into cells.

4. To which pharmacologic classification does the drug propranolol belong?

• A. Beta Blockers
• B. Cholinergics
• C. Immune globulins
• D. Barbiturates

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Propranolol belongs to the pharmacologic classification of Beta Blockers. Beta blockers work by blocking the action of adrenaline and other stress hormones on beta-adrenergic receptors. They are commonly used to manage conditions like high blood pressure, angina, and arrhythmias. Choice B, Cholinergics, is incorrect because cholinergics work by stimulating the parasympathetic nervous system, unlike beta blockers that block adrenergic receptors. Choice C, Immune globulins, is incorrect as it refers to antibodies used to boost the immune system, not the mechanism of action of propranolol. Choice D, Barbiturates, is incorrect as barbiturates are a different class of drugs that act as central nervous system depressants, primarily used as sedatives and anesthetics.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's medical history and notes that the client has a prescription for Digoxin. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of Digoxin toxicity?

• A. Elevated blood pressure
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Yellow-tinged vision
• D. Ringing in the ears

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Yellow-tinged vision, along with nausea, vomiting, and confusion, are common manifestations of Digoxin toxicity. Visual disturbances are important to recognize as they can indicate the need for immediate medical attention and potential adjustment of Digoxin therapy to prevent serious complications. Elevated blood pressure is not typically associated with Digoxin toxicity; instead, hypotension may occur. Bradycardia is a common therapeutic effect of Digoxin rather than a sign of toxicity. Ringing in the ears, or tinnitus, is also a potential side effect of Digoxin but is less specific to toxicity compared to yellow-tinged vision.

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