Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is obtaining a medication history from a client who is to receive Imipenem-cilastatin IV to treat an infection. Which of the following medications the client also receives puts them at risk for a medication interaction?

• A. Regular insulin
• B. Furosemide
• C. Valproic acid
• D. Ferrous sulfate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Valproic acid. Imipenem-cilastatin decreases the blood levels of valproic acid, an antiseizure medication, which can lead to increased seizure activity. Monitoring and adjusting the dosage of valproic acid may be necessary when co-administered with Imipenem-cilastatin to prevent adverse effects. Choices A, B, and D do not typically interact significantly with Imipenem-cilastatin and are not associated with a high risk of adverse interactions in this scenario.

2. A toddler is being admitted to the hospital after an Acetaminophen overdose. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to this patient?

• A. Acetylcysteine
• B. Pegfilgrastim
• C. Misoprostol
• D. Naltrexone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In cases of Acetaminophen overdose, acetylcysteine is the antidote of choice. Acetylcysteine helps prevent liver damage by replenishing depleted glutathione levels, which is essential for detoxifying acetaminophen metabolites. Pegfilgrastim is a medication used to stimulate white blood cell production, Misoprostol is a medication for preventing stomach ulcers, and Naltrexone is used for treating opioid addiction and alcoholism, but none of these are indicated for Acetaminophen overdose.

3. What is the primary action of warfarin as an anticoagulant?

• A. Prevents the formation of blood clots
• B. Dissolves existing blood clots
• C. Dilates coronary arteries
• D. Treats rhythm disturbances

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Prevents the formation of blood clots." Warfarin acts as an anticoagulant by inhibiting the synthesis of certain clotting factors in the liver. This action reduces the blood's ability to clot, making it effective in preventing the formation of blood clots. Choice B is incorrect because warfarin does not dissolve existing blood clots; it prevents their formation. Choice C is incorrect because warfarin's primary action is not to dilate coronary arteries. Choice D is incorrect as warfarin is not used to treat rhythm disturbances, but rather to prevent clot formation.

4. While teaching a client starting therapy with rituximab, which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Dizziness
• B. Fever
• C. Urinary frequency
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fever. The nurse should instruct the client to report fever as it can be an indication of an infection, which is a potential complication of rituximab therapy. Monitoring for fever is crucial to promptly address any signs of infection and ensure the client's safety during treatment. Choices A, C, and D are not typically associated with rituximab therapy and are less likely to be directly related to a serious complication requiring immediate attention.

5. In reviewing a client's health record, which condition would be a contraindication for using Propranolol to treat hypertension?

• A. Asthma
• B. Glaucoma
• C. Hypertension
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Propranolol is a nonselective beta-adrenergic blocker that blocks both beta1 and beta2 receptors. Blocking beta2 receptors in the lungs can lead to bronchoconstriction, making it unsuitable for clients with asthma. Therefore, asthma is a contraindication for taking Propranolol. Glaucoma, hypertension, and tachycardia are not contraindications for using Propranolol to treat hypertension.

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