a nurse is providing teaching to a client who has peptic ulcer disease and is prescribed sucralfate which of the following instructions should the nur

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Test Bank

1. A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed sucralfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

A. Take sucralfate with meals.
B. Take sucralfate 1 hr before meals.
C. Take sucralfate with antacids.
D. Take sucralfate 2 hours after meals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for taking sucralfate is 1 hour before meals. This timing allows sucralfate to effectively coat the stomach lining and provide a protective barrier against gastric acid, helping to prevent ulcers.

2. What is the action of Nitroglycerin?

A. Dilates the Bronchi
B. Reduces Blood Glucose
C. Reduces Nausea
D. Dilates Coronary Arteries

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nitroglycerin acts by dilating the coronary arteries, leading to increased blood flow and oxygen supply to the heart. This helps in relieving angina symptoms by reducing the heart's workload and improving blood supply to the myocardium. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Nitroglycerin's primary action is not related to dilating bronchi, reducing blood glucose, or reducing nausea.

3. Why has an ACE inhibitor been prescribed following an MI?

A. “This medication will lower your potassium level.”
B. “ACE inhibitors have been found to reduce mortality following MI.”
C. “ACE inhibitors are always prescribed with a beta blocker and calcium channel blocker following an MI.”
D. “This medication will treat your hypotension.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Following a myocardial infarction (MI), ACE inhibitors are commonly prescribed due to their proven benefit in reducing mortality and improving outcomes post-MI. These medications help by decreasing the workload of the heart, preventing remodeling of the heart chambers, and improving survival rates. While ACE inhibitors may have effects on potassium levels, the primary reason for their prescription post-MI is their mortality-reducing properties.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing a new prescription for Ondansetron 4 mg PO PRN for nausea and vomiting for a client who has Hyperemesis Gravidarum. The healthcare professional should clarify which of the following parts of the prescription with the provider?

A. Name
B. Dosage
C. Route
D. Frequency

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The prescription lacks the frequency of medication administration, which is crucial for ensuring appropriate use. In this case, the frequency of when the medication can be taken needs to be clarified with the provider to provide safe and effective care for the client with Hyperemesis Gravidarum.

5. When administering Phenytoin, what should you monitor?

A. Behavior
B. Therapeutic blood levels
C. For signs of Stevens-Johnson syndrome
D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When administering Phenytoin, monitoring the patient's behavior is important to assess for any changes that may indicate adverse effects. Monitoring therapeutic blood levels helps ensure the medication is within the effective range and not causing toxicity. Additionally, being vigilant for signs of Stevens-Johnson syndrome, a severe skin reaction associated with Phenytoin use, is crucial for early detection and intervention. Therefore, monitoring behavior, therapeutic blood levels, and for signs of Stevens-Johnson syndrome are all essential when administering Phenytoin.