a nurse is caring for a client who has active pulmonary tuberculosis tb and is to be started on intravenous rifampin therapy the nurse should instruct
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Proctored Pharmacology Test

1. A client with active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) is to be started on intravenous rifampin therapy. The client should be informed by the nurse that this medication can cause which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Body secretions turning a red-orange color. Rifampin is known to cause body secretions, such as urine, sweat, tears, and sputum, to turn a harmless red-orange color. This is a common and expected side effect of rifampin therapy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Constipation is not a common adverse effect of rifampin. Black-colored stools and staining of teeth are not associated with rifampin therapy. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about the harmless red-orange discoloration that may occur with this medication.

2. A client has been prescribed a calcium channel blocker for angina. The nurse knows this medication should NOT be used with caution in combination with which drug classes?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Calcium channel blockers and beta blockers should be used with caution together because they can both suppress heart function, potentially leading to bradycardia, heart block, or heart failure. NSAIDs and cardiac glycosides do not have significant interactions with calcium channel blockers in the same way, so they are not typically a cause for concern when combined.

3. A client has a new prescription for Allopurinol. Which of the following instructions should be included by the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Allopurinol can increase the risk of kidney stones as a side effect. To prevent this adverse effect, it is essential for the client to increase their fluid intake. Adequate hydration can help in preventing the formation of kidney stones by keeping urine dilute and flushing out substances that can lead to stone formation.

4. A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. Which statement by the client indicates an adverse effect of the medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nausea and loss of appetite are common early signs of digoxin toxicity, indicating an adverse effect of the medication. These symptoms should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately for further evaluation and management.

5. A client is prescribed Ciprofloxacin and seeks guidance from a nurse. Which instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid taking this medication with dairy products.' Ciprofloxacin should not be taken with dairy products due to the interference of calcium with medication absorption. Taking Ciprofloxacin 1 hour before or 2 hours after consuming dairy products ensures optimal effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because Ciprofloxacin is usually taken on an empty stomach or with a light meal, not necessarily with heavy meals. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific instruction to take Ciprofloxacin at bedtime. Choice D is incorrect because there is no need to increase potassium-rich foods intake specifically related to Ciprofloxacin use.

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