Nursing Elites

1. A client with active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) is to be started on intravenous rifampin therapy. The client should be informed by the nurse that this medication can cause which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Constipation
• B. Black-colored stools
• C. Staining of teeth
• D. Body secretions turning a red-orange color

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Body secretions turning a red-orange color. Rifampin is known to cause body secretions, such as urine, sweat, tears, and sputum, to turn a harmless red-orange color. This is a common and expected side effect of rifampin therapy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Constipation is not a common adverse effect of rifampin. Black-colored stools and staining of teeth are not associated with rifampin therapy. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about the harmless red-orange discoloration that may occur with this medication.

2. A client with brain cancer and headaches is prescribed dexamethasone. What is the purpose of this adjuvant medication?

• A. To decrease inflammation and swelling
• B. To improve concentration
• C. To induce sedation
• D. To treat depression

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dexamethasone, a glucocorticoid, is indicated for clients with brain cancer to decrease inflammation and swelling. It helps reduce cerebral edema and relieve pressure caused by the tumor, ultimately alleviating headaches. The purpose of prescribing dexamethasone in this case is not to improve concentration (choice B), induce sedation (choice C), or treat depression (choice D). Methylphenidate, a stimulant, is used for conditions like ADHD, not for brain cancer. Hydroxyzine, an antihistamine, is primarily used for anxiety and itching, not for brain cancer. Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, is used for conditions like depression and neuropathic pain, not specifically for brain cancer-related headaches.

3. A client reports using over-the-counter calcium carbonate antacid. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse make about taking this medication?

• A. Decrease bulk in the diet to counteract the adverse effect of diarrhea.
• B. Take the medication with dairy products to increase absorption.
• C. Reduce sodium intake.
• D. Drink a glass of water after taking the medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct recommendation for taking calcium carbonate antacid is to drink a glass of water after taking the medication. This practice enhances the effectiveness of the antacid by promoting its dissolution and absorption in the stomach, providing relief from symptoms of heartburn and indigestion. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is not relevant as calcium carbonate antacid does not typically cause diarrhea. Choice B is inaccurate as taking calcium carbonate with dairy products may decrease its absorption due to the presence of calcium in both sources. Choice C is unrelated to the administration of calcium carbonate antacid.

4. A client has a new prescription for Amlodipine. Which of the following side effects should the client monitor for and report?

• A. Swelling of the ankles.
• B. Increased urination.
• C. Persistent cough.
• D. Dark-colored urine.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, can cause peripheral edema (swelling of the ankles) as a side effect. This occurs due to the dilation of blood vessels and increased fluid retention. It is important for the client to monitor for ankle swelling as it could indicate a potential adverse reaction to the medication. Reporting this side effect to the healthcare provider is crucial to ensure appropriate management and potential adjustment of the treatment plan.\n Choice B, increased urination, is not a common side effect of Amlodipine. Choice C, persistent cough, is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors rather than calcium channel blockers like Amlodipine. Choice D, dark-colored urine, is not a typical side effect of Amlodipine and is not something the client should specifically monitor for and report while taking this medication.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's health record and notes that the client is experiencing episodes of hypokalemia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider identify as a cause of the client's hypokalemia?

• A. Captopril
• B. Lisinopril
• C. Furosemide
• D. Spironolactone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts on the kidneys to increase urine production. This increased urine output can lead to the excessive excretion of potassium, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels and considering supplementation may be necessary when a patient is on furosemide to prevent or manage hypokalemia.

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