Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Morphine to manage post-operative pain. Which of the following assessments should the nurse perform first?

• A. Urine output
• B. Bowel sounds
• C. Pain level
• D. Respiratory rate

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should prioritize assessing the client's respiratory rate first when administering Morphine due to the risk of respiratory depression, which is a life-threatening adverse effect of this medication. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial to detect any signs of respiratory distress early and take prompt action to ensure the client's safety. Assessing urine output, bowel sounds, and pain level are also important but not as critical as monitoring respiratory rate when initiating Morphine therapy.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer furosemide 80 mg PO daily. The available furosemide oral solution is 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer?

• A. 8 mL
• B. 10 mL
• C. 6 mL
• D. 12 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To determine the volume to administer, divide the desired dose by the available concentration. In this case, (80 mg / 10 mg/mL) = 8 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional should administer 8 mL of furosemide oral solution. Choice B (10 mL), C (6 mL), and D (12 mL) are incorrect as they do not accurately calculate the volume needed based on the provided concentration of the solution.

3. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Atenolol. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker that can cause bradycardia as an adverse effect. The client should monitor their pulse regularly and report any significant decreases.

4. What is the therapeutic use of Phenytoin?

• A. Replacement in hypothyroidism to restore normal hormonal balance
• B. Diminished accumulation of acid in the gastric lumen with lessened gastroesophageal reflux
• C. Diminished seizure activity, termination of ventricular arrhythmias
• D. Prevention of thrombus formation, prevention of extension of existing thrombi

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Phenytoin is primarily used to diminish seizure activity and is effective in terminating ventricular arrhythmias. It works by stabilizing neuronal membranes, reducing repetitive neuronal firing, and limiting the spread of seizure activity in the brain. While phenytoin does not have a direct role in preventing thrombus formation or extending existing thrombi, it is crucial in managing seizures and certain arrhythmias.

5. A client has a new prescription for Warfarin. The nurse should identify that the concurrent use of which of the following medications increases the client's risk of bleeding?

• A. Vitamin K
• B. Calcium carbonate
• C. Acetaminophen
• D. Ranitidine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Acetaminophen (Choice C). Acetaminophen, especially in high doses, can increase the risk of bleeding in clients taking Warfarin. It can potentiate the anticoagulant effect of Warfarin, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Vitamin K (Choice A) is actually used to reverse the effects of Warfarin in case of over-anticoagulation, so it does not increase the risk of bleeding. Calcium carbonate (Choice B) and Ranitidine (Choice D) do not significantly interact with Warfarin to increase the risk of bleeding.

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