ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health care record of a client who reports urinary incontinence and asks about a prescription for Oxybutynin. The provider should recognize that Oxybutynin is contraindicated in the presence of which of the following conditions?
- A. Bursitis
- B. Sinusitis
- C. Depression
- D. Glaucoma
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic medication that can increase intraocular pressure. It is contraindicated in clients with glaucoma, as it can worsen the condition. Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure, and using Oxybutynin can further elevate this pressure, potentially leading to serious complications such as vision impairment or damage to the optic nerve. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as bursitis, sinusitis, and depression are not contraindications for Oxybutynin use. Therefore, the correct answer is D, Glaucoma.
2. A client is starting therapy with docetaxel. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?
- A. Flushing
- B. Dyspnea
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Tinnitus
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dyspnea. The nurse should instruct the client to report dyspnea because it can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a serious adverse effect of docetaxel. Dyspnea may be a sign of a potentially life-threatening condition that the healthcare provider needs to address promptly. Flushing (Choice A) is not typically associated with docetaxel therapy. Hyperglycemia (Choice C) is also not a common side effect of docetaxel. Tinnitus (Choice D) is not a usual finding with docetaxel and is not a priority over potential pulmonary toxicity indicated by dyspnea.
3. A nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client who has a new prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication before bed.
- B. Monitor for increased blood pressure.
- C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- D. Monitor for leg cramps.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Monitor for leg cramps.' Leg cramps may indicate hypokalemia, an adverse effect of hydrochlorothiazide, and should be reported to the provider. Choice A is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide is usually taken in the morning to avoid nocturia. Choice B is incorrect as hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that helps lower blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect as hydrochlorothiazide can be taken with or without food.
4. A client has a new prescription for Metoclopramide to treat nausea. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should take this medication before bedtime.
- B. I will discontinue this medication if I experience drowsiness.
- C. I should report restlessness or involuntary movements.
- D. This medication can change the color of my urine to orange.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Reporting restlessness or involuntary movements is crucial as they can be signs of extrapyramidal symptoms, a potential side effect of Metoclopramide. These symptoms should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for appropriate management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking the medication before bedtime, discontinuing it due to drowsiness, or expecting urine color changes are not relevant teaching points for Metoclopramide use.
5. A client is prescribed Lithium. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored to assess for potential toxicity?
- A. Serum sodium
- B. Serum lithium
- C. Serum potassium
- D. Serum calcium
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client is prescribed Lithium, monitoring serum lithium levels is crucial to ensure they remain within the therapeutic range and to assess for potential toxicity. Monitoring serum lithium levels helps prevent adverse effects associated with lithium toxicity, such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, tremors, and confusion.
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