a nurse is reviewing the health care record of a client who reports urinary incontinence and asks about a prescription for oxybutynin the nurse should
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health care record of a client who reports urinary incontinence and asks about a prescription for Oxybutynin. The provider should recognize that Oxybutynin is contraindicated in the presence of which of the following conditions?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic medication that can increase intraocular pressure. It is contraindicated in clients with glaucoma, as it can worsen the condition. Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure, and using Oxybutynin can further elevate this pressure, potentially leading to serious complications such as vision impairment or damage to the optic nerve. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as bursitis, sinusitis, and depression are not contraindications for Oxybutynin use. Therefore, the correct answer is D, Glaucoma.

2. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for Warfarin. Which of the following foods should the provider instruct the client to avoid?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients taking Warfarin should avoid foods high in vitamin K, such as broccoli, as they can interfere with the effectiveness of the medication. Vitamin K can counteract the anticoagulant effects of Warfarin, potentially leading to blood clotting issues. Broccoli is rich in vitamin K, so its consumption should be consistent to avoid fluctuations in the medication's effectiveness. Bananas, chicken, and potatoes are not known to significantly interact with Warfarin and do not pose a risk of affecting its anticoagulant properties.

3. While providing an Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, the patient asks what the action of the drug is. As a healthcare provider, you explain that the action of an ACE inhibitor is:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: ACE inhibitors lower blood pressure by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to vasoconstrictor angiotensin II. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor, and by inhibiting its formation, ACE inhibitors help dilate blood vessels, reduce blood pressure, and decrease the workload on the heart. Choice B is incorrect as it describes the mechanism of action of diuretics, not ACE inhibitors. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to the action of beta-blockers, not ACE inhibitors. Choice D is incorrect as it describes the mechanism of action of antidiabetic medications, not ACE inhibitors.

4. When preparing to administer IV Acyclovir for Herpes Zoster, what action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse is to infuse IV Acyclovir over at least 1 hour to prevent nephrotoxicity. Rapid infusion can lead to adverse effects, so a slow infusion rate is crucial for patient safety. Monitoring blood pressure, administering a stool softener, or monitoring blood glucose levels are not directly related to the administration of IV Acyclovir for Herpes Zoster.

5. A healthcare provider is caring for four clients who have Peptic Ulcer Disease. The healthcare provider should recognize Misoprostol is contraindicated for which of the following clients?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Misoprostol is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its potential to induce labor. It is used to prevent ulcers in patients taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and is not indicated for osteoarthritis, kidney stones, or urinary tract infections. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Misoprostol should not be used in pregnant individuals as it can cause uterine contractions and potentially harm the fetus. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as Misoprostol is not contraindicated for clients with osteoarthritis, kidney stones, or urinary tract infections.

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