ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. When teaching a client with a new prescription for Clopidogrel, which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess for potential adverse effects?
- A. White blood cell count
- B. Platelet count
- C. Hemoglobin
- D. Blood glucose
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by reducing the formation of blood clots. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's platelet count to assess for potential bleeding complications. A decrease in platelet count could indicate a risk of bleeding, which is an adverse effect associated with Clopidogrel therapy. Monitoring other laboratory values like white blood cell count, hemoglobin, and blood glucose is important for assessing overall health status but is not directly related to the potential adverse effects of Clopidogrel.
2. A client has a new prescription for Filgrastim. Which of the following instructions should be included by the healthcare provider?
- A. Take this medication with food.
- B. Avoid taking this medication with orange juice.
- C. Report bone pain to your healthcare provider.
- D. Expect a persistent cough while taking this medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Report bone pain to your healthcare provider.' Filgrastim is known to cause bone pain as a common side effect. Therefore, it is crucial for clients to report any bone pain to their healthcare provider to monitor for potential complications or the need for further management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking Filgrastim with food, avoiding it with orange juice, and expecting a persistent cough are not relevant instructions associated with this medication.
3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client taking Warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider immediately?
- A. INR of 4.0
- B. Potassium level of 4.5 mEq/L
- C. Creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL
- D. BUN of 18 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An INR of 4.0 indicates that the client's blood is clotting too slowly, increasing the risk of bleeding. This level is above the therapeutic range for a client on Warfarin therapy. Therefore, the healthcare professional should notify the provider immediately to prevent potential bleeding complications. The other laboratory values are within normal limits and do not pose an immediate risk to the client's health while on Warfarin therapy.
4. Which of the following is not a side effect associated with Prednisone toxicity?
- A. Cataracts
- B. Hypotension
- C. Psychosis
- D. Acne
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Prednisone toxicity is not typically associated with hypotension; instead, it can lead to hypertension. Cataracts, psychosis, and acne are known side effects of Prednisone toxicity.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing a new prescription for Ondansetron 4 mg PO PRN for nausea and vomiting for a client who has Hyperemesis Gravidarum. The healthcare professional should clarify which of the following parts of the prescription with the provider?
- A. Name
- B. Dosage
- C. Route
- D. Frequency
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The prescription lacks the frequency of medication administration, which is crucial for ensuring appropriate use. In this case, the frequency of when the medication can be taken needs to be clarified with the provider to provide safe and effective care for the client with Hyperemesis Gravidarum.
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