a nurse is planning care for a client who has brain cancer and is experiencing headaches which of the following adjuvant medications are indicated for
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam

1. A client with brain cancer and headaches is prescribed dexamethasone. What is the purpose of this adjuvant medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dexamethasone, a glucocorticoid, is indicated for clients with brain cancer to decrease inflammation and swelling. It helps reduce cerebral edema and relieve pressure caused by the tumor, ultimately alleviating headaches. The purpose of prescribing dexamethasone in this case is not to improve concentration (choice B), induce sedation (choice C), or treat depression (choice D). Methylphenidate, a stimulant, is used for conditions like ADHD, not for brain cancer. Hydroxyzine, an antihistamine, is primarily used for anxiety and itching, not for brain cancer. Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, is used for conditions like depression and neuropathic pain, not specifically for brain cancer-related headaches.

2. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who is prescribed Warfarin. Which of the following dietary instructions should the provider include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid foods high in vitamin K. Vitamin K can interfere with the effectiveness of Warfarin by counteracting its anticoagulant effects. Foods high in vitamin K, such as leafy green vegetables, should be limited in the diet of individuals taking Warfarin to maintain a consistent level of the medication's effectiveness. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as increasing intake of leafy green vegetables (choice A) and dairy products (choice C) may increase the intake of vitamin K, which is not recommended, and avoiding foods high in iron (choice D) is not directly related to Warfarin therapy.

3. The client asks the nurse about common side effects of calcium channel blockers. What should the nurse include in client teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: One of the common side effects of calcium channel blockers is a headache. This is important information for the nurse to include in client teaching as it helps the client understand potential adverse effects of the medication. Constipation, epistaxis, and dysuria are not typically associated with calcium channel blockers.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer heparin 15,000 units subcutaneously every 12 hours. The available heparin injection is 20,000 units/mL. How many milliliters should the healthcare professional administer per dose?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer, use the formula: Desired dose / Concentration = Volume to administer. In this case, (15,000 units / 20,000 units/mL) = 0.75 mL. Since the volume needs to be rounded up to the nearest tenth, the correct answer is 0.8 mL. Choice B (0.75 mL) is incorrect because it does not account for rounding up the volume. Choices C (0.5 mL) and D (1 mL) are incorrect as they do not reflect the precise calculation based on the given concentration and desired dose.

5. A healthcare provider is planning to administer Ciprofloxacin IV to a client who has cystitis. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ciprofloxacin should be infused over 60 minutes to minimize vein irritation and reduce the risk of adverse effects. Administering a concentrated solution can lead to vein irritation and potential complications. Infusing the solution through the primary IV fluid tubing can cause incompatibility issues. Choosing a small peripheral vein may not be suitable for administering Ciprofloxacin, which should be infused through a larger vein to prevent vein irritation and ensure a proper dilution of the medication.

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