ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client is taking Furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to assess for an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Serum potassium.
- B. Serum calcium.
- C. Serum sodium.
- D. Serum magnesium.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic commonly used in heart failure, can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) as a side effect. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to detect and prevent complications associated with low potassium levels, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize assessing the client's serum potassium levels regularly while on Furosemide. Serum calcium, sodium, and magnesium levels are not typically affected by Furosemide and are not the primary focus of monitoring for adverse effects of this medication.
2. Which of the following drugs is associated with hepatitis as a reaction?
- A. Valproic acid
- B. Quinidine
- C. Isoniazid
- D. Ethosuximide
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Hepatitis is a known side effect of isoniazid. It is important to monitor patients on isoniazid for signs of liver damage, including hepatitis, as part of their treatment regimen for tuberculosis.
3. A client is prescribed Ciprofloxacin and seeks guidance from a nurse. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Take this medication with meals.
- B. Avoid taking this medication with dairy products.
- C. Take this medication at bedtime.
- D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid taking this medication with dairy products.' Ciprofloxacin should not be taken with dairy products due to the interference of calcium with medication absorption. Taking Ciprofloxacin 1 hour before or 2 hours after consuming dairy products ensures optimal effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because Ciprofloxacin is usually taken on an empty stomach or with a light meal, not necessarily with heavy meals. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific instruction to take Ciprofloxacin at bedtime. Choice D is incorrect because there is no need to increase potassium-rich foods intake specifically related to Ciprofloxacin use.
4. A client has a new prescription for Omeprazole. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in teaching the client?
- A. Take the medication before meals.
- B. You may experience a rapid heart rate.
- C. Increase your intake of high-calcium foods.
- D. Expect your urine to turn orange.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct statement for the nurse to include when teaching a client prescribed Omeprazole is to take the medication before meals. Omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, is most effective when taken before meals as it works by reducing the amount of acid produced in the stomach. Choice B is incorrect because a rapid heart rate is not a common side effect of Omeprazole. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to increase intake of high-calcium foods with Omeprazole. Choice D is also incorrect as Omeprazole does not typically cause urine discoloration.
5. A client has a new prescription for Calcitonin-salmon for postmenopausal osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Swallow tablets on an empty stomach with plenty of water.
- B. Watch for skin rash and redness when applying calcitonin-salmon topically.
- C. Mix the liquid medication with juice and take it after meals.
- D. Alternate nostrils each time calcitonin-salmon is inhaled.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Calcitonin-salmon is commonly administered intranasally for postmenopausal osteoporosis. To ensure optimal absorption, the client should alternate nostrils daily when inhaling the medication. This practice helps prevent irritation and promotes consistent drug delivery through both nostrils. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because calcitonin-salmon is not swallowed as a tablet, applied topically, or mixed with juice; it is usually administered intranasally.
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