Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Diltiazem. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. This medication may cause dry mouth.
• B. You should avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
• C. You may experience a rapid heart rate.
• D. Increase your intake of fiber-rich foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement to include when teaching a client about Diltiazem is to avoid drinking grapefruit juice. Grapefruit juice can increase the levels of diltiazem in the blood, leading to potential toxicity and increased side effects. It is important for the client to be aware of this interaction to ensure the safe and effective use of the medication. Option A is incorrect because dry mouth is not a common side effect of Diltiazem. Option C is incorrect because Diltiazem is actually used to treat rapid heart rates. Option D is unrelated to the medication and not relevant to the teaching.

2. When teaching a client with a new prescription for Clopidogrel, which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess for potential adverse effects?

• A. White blood cell count
• B. Platelet count
• C. Hemoglobin
• D. Blood glucose

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by reducing the formation of blood clots. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's platelet count to assess for potential bleeding complications. A decrease in platelet count could indicate a risk of bleeding, which is an adverse effect associated with Clopidogrel therapy. Monitoring other laboratory values like white blood cell count, hemoglobin, and blood glucose is important for assessing overall health status but is not directly related to the potential adverse effects of Clopidogrel.

3. A client has a new prescription for Amlodipine. Which of the following side effects should the client monitor for and report?

• A. Swelling of the ankles.
• B. Increased urination.
• C. Persistent cough.
• D. Dark-colored urine.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, can cause peripheral edema (swelling of the ankles) as a side effect. This occurs due to the dilation of blood vessels and increased fluid retention. It is important for the client to monitor for ankle swelling as it could indicate a potential adverse reaction to the medication. Reporting this side effect to the healthcare provider is crucial to ensure appropriate management and potential adjustment of the treatment plan.\n Choice B, increased urination, is not a common side effect of Amlodipine. Choice C, persistent cough, is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors rather than calcium channel blockers like Amlodipine. Choice D, dark-colored urine, is not a typical side effect of Amlodipine and is not something the client should specifically monitor for and report while taking this medication.

4. A client has been prescribed Alendronate for osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water after getting up in the morning.
• B. Remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication.
• C. Chew the tablet and mix it with applesauce if swallowing is difficult.
• D. Take the medication at bedtime to minimize the chance of esophageal irritation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Alendronate for osteoporosis is to take the medication with a full glass of water after getting up in the morning. This is important to reduce the risk of esophageal irritation. Choice B is also correct as remaining upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication helps prevent esophageal irritation and ensures proper absorption. Choice C is incorrect because Alendronate tablets should not be chewed or mixed with any other substance. Choice D is incorrect as taking the medication at bedtime increases the risk of esophageal irritation due to lying down after ingestion.

5. While caring for a client receiving Heparin therapy, which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. PT
• B. INR
• C. aPTT
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) when caring for a client receiving Heparin therapy. The aPTT reflects the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and is used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin, which primarily affects this pathway by potentiating antithrombin III. Monitoring the aPTT helps ensure that the client's blood is within the therapeutic range to prevent thrombus formation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. PT (Prothrombin Time) and INR (International Normalized Ratio) are used to monitor Warfarin therapy, not Heparin. Platelet count is important in assessing for thrombocytopenia but is not a specific indicator of Heparin therapy effectiveness.

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